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Code d'Examen: JK0-U31
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Strata IT Technology Exam)
Questions et réponses: 276 Q&As
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NO.1 Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A, C
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Explanation:
A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They
usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been
unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that
converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic
equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect.
Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal
electric shocks.
NO.2 Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion
cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards.
With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the
expansion cards
connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is
LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In
LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several
slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX
are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for
smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards.
NO.3 You are implementing wireless access at a defense contractor.
Specifications say, you must implement the AES Encryption algorithm. Which encryption standard
should you choose?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. TKIP
D. WPA 2
Answer: D
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Explanation:
WPA 2 (Wi Fi Protected Access 2) uses AES encryption, which is endorsed by the National Security
Administration. What is AES? The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is an encryption standard
adopted by the U.S. government. The standard comprises three block ciphers, AES-128, AES-192,
and AES-256. Each AES cipher has a 128-bit block size, with key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits,
respectively. The AES ciphers have been analyzed extensively and are now used worldwide, as was
the case with its predecessor, the Data Encryption Standard (DES). AES was announced by National
Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) as U.S. FIPS PUB 197 (FIPS 197) on November 26, 2001
after a 5-year standardization process in which fifteen competing designs were presented and
evaluated before Rijndael was selected as the most suitable. It became effective as a standard on
May 26, 2002. As of 2009, AES is one of the most popular algorithms used in symmetric key
cryptography. It is available in many different encryption packages. AES is the first publicly
accessible and open cipher approved by the NSA for top secret information. Answer optiond A and
B are incorrect. WEP and WPA both use the RC-4 Stream cipher. What is RC4? RC4 is a stream cipher
designed by Ron Rivest.
It is used in many applications, including Transport Layer Security (TLS), Wired Equivalent Privacy
(WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), etc. RC4 is fast and simple. However, it has weaknesses that
argue against its use in new systems. It is especially vulnerable when the beginning of the output
key stream is not discarded, nonrandom or related keys are used, or a single key stream is used
twice. Some ways of using RC4 can lead to very insecure cryptosystems such as WEP . Answer option
C is incorrect. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol is a substitute for WPA, meant to replace WEP
without requiring that hardware be replaced.
Reference: http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.11i
NO.4 You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains
that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type
of expansion card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B
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Explanation:
PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer
Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a
small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of
the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer
option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a
legacy
graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus
designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct
access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of
up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot.
Reference:
http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm
NO.5 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at
a company. The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on
the new PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose. What is User State Migration Tool (USMT)? User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used
to migrate user files and settings during large deployments of Microsoft Windows XP and Microsoft
Windows Vista operating systems. It captures desktop, and application settings, as well as user
accounts and users' files, and then migrates them to a new Windows installation. It helps
administrators to improve and simplify migration process. USMT can be used for both side-by-side
and wipe-and-load migrations. USMT component SCANSTATE.EXE
is used to collect the files and settings from the source computer and the LOADSTATE.EXE
component is used to restore the user state onto the destination computer. Answer option D is
incorrect. Moving the Windows registry will not work and could in cause major problems on the
new system. This is especially true if the new system has a more modern version of Windows.
Answer option B is incorrect. The disk management
tool is used for managing disk partitions. Answer option A is incorrect. A complete backup will likely
cause problems on the new installations. This is especially true if the new system has a more
modern version of Windows.
Reference: http.//technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb457090.aspx
NO.6 Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D
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Explanation:
HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and all-digital
audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-
channel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources,
such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits
all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to
accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and Type B.
Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is
designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future. Answer option B is
incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a technology for video
transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two separate signals.
One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals are considered as a
type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other complex component video
schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than those produced by composite
video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For using S- Video, the device sending
the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving the signal needs to have an
S-Video input jack. Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a
standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group
(DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards
have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA
connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections.
However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of
connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only
connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I
connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set
of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual
links. Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female
connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference:
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High-Definition_Multimedia_Interface"
NO.7 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information,
such as Internet surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B
certification CompTIA JK0-U31 JK0-U31 certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Spyware is a program that takes partial control over a user's computer without user's permission.
Spyware programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet surfing habits,
and Web sites that the user has visited. Spyware programs can also interfere with the control of a
user's computer, such as installing additional software, redirecting Web browser activities, accessing
Web sites blindly, etc. Answer option C is incorrect. A honeypot is a term in computer terminology
used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized
use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears
to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain
information or a resource of value to attackers. Answer option A is incorrect. The term malware
refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including spyware. Malware
is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner. Answer option D
is incorrect. A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and security holes to
replicate itself from one computer to another. It usually performs malicious actions, such as using
the resources of computers as well as shutting down computers.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spyware"
NO.8 Which of the following is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products?
A. Energy Star rating
B. Standby mode
C. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
D. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Energy Star rating is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products. The Energy
Star rating is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products. Devices carrying
the Energy Star logo are products, such as computer devices, peripherals, kitchen appliances, etc.
These products generally use 20% to 30% lesser energy than required by the federal standards. The
Energy Star program was created by the 'United
States Environmental Protection Agency' (US EPA) as an attempt to reduce energy consumption and
greenhouse gas emission by power plants. The program has helped in spreading the use of LED
traffic lights, efficient fluorescent lighting, and power management systems for office equipments.
Answer option C is incorrect. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC), frequently
referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications. It is a
United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for
assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was
used to evaluate, classify and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage
and retrieval of sensitive or classified information.
It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally
published in 2005. Answer option B is incorrect. The standby mode is a power saving feature for
computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low
power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby
mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is
disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on
ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This
mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option D is incorrect. The
Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) is a power- management specification
developed by Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba. It enables an operating system to control the amount of
power supplied to each device attached to a computer by turning off peripheral devices when they
are not in use. It defines power management on a wide range of mobile,
desktop, and server computers and peripherals. It also enables manuurers to produce computers
that automatically power up as soon as a user touches the keyboard.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Energy_Star"
NO.9 Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to
time to protect a computer from new viruses?
A. Definition
B. Modules
C. Service pack
D. Hotfix
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a
computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file
contains information
about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect computers from them.
Answer option D is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates
that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring under
specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release. Hotfixes are
generally
related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as soon as possible. Answer
option C is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product. A service
pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an operating system
with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number of file replacements.
Answer option B is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus"
NO.10 Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. DB-25
C. PS/ 2
D. DB-9
Answer:
A, C
Explanation:
The PS/ 2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. What is USB? Universal
Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC,
and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware
devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed
while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral
devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data
transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0
is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and
DB-25 port types on the computer are used as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins,
whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins. What is a serial port? Serial port is the primary means
for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors,
9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single
wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial
signals can travel much farther without degradation.
NO.11 Which of the following storage device uses SRAM or DRAM?
A. USB flash drive
B. Solid-state drive (SSD)
C. Blu-ray Disc
D. CD drive
Answer: B
CompTIA JK0-U31 examen JK0-U31 examen certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
A solid-state drive (SSD) is a data storage device that uses solid-state memory to store persistent
data. An SSD emulates a hard disk drive interface, thus easily replacing it in most applications. It is
also known as solid-state hard disk drive. SSDs have no moving parts; hence, they are less fragile
and silent than hard disks. As there are no mechanical delays, SSDs usually enjoy low access time
and latency. An SSD using SRAM or DRAM (instead of flash memory) is often called a RAM-drive,
which should not be confused with a RAM disk. Answer option C is incorrect. Blu-ray Disc, also
known as Blu-ray or BD, is an optical disc storage medium. It is designed to supersede the standard
DVD format for storing high-definition video, PlayStation 3 games, and other data, with up to 25 GB
per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. Blu-ray Disc was developed by the Blu-ray Disc
Association, a group representing makers of consumer electronics, computer hardware, and motion
pictures. The disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs. It is called Blu-ray
Disc because of the blue-violet laser which is used to read the disc. Blu-ray uses a shorter
wavelength, a 405 nm blue-violet laser, and allows for almost six times more data storage than on a
DVD. Answer option D is incorrect. CD drive is used for read/write operations on CDs. The CD drives
that are capable of performing write operations on CDs are also known as CD burners.
However, most of the CD drives on computers have read only capability. CD drives with read-only
capability are also known as CD-ROM (Compact Disc Read-Only Memory) drives.
A CD drive is installed inside the computer case and can be connected to IDE, SCSI, SATA, or firewire
interface. Answer option A is incorrect. A USB flash
drive consists of flash memory data storage device integrated with a USB (Universal Serial Bus) 1.1
or 2.0 interface.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solid-state_drive"
NO.12 Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C
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Explanation:
The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management. Hibernate
mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer
is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer
to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the
saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate
mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled,
users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically
hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers, users are able to
set hibernate mode automatically. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In
this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and,
as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power
is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply
is disconnected or interrupted, data might be
lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers.
Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and
non-APM based computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device
can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode
is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It
bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or
system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.
NO.13 Which of the following are types of LCD monitors? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C
certification CompTIA JK0-U31 JK0-U31 certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Two types of LCDs are available. Active matrix Passive matrix Active matrix LCDs uses individual
transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of LCD consumes
more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive matrix Passive matrix
screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen displays weak colors.
LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs. Answer option A is incorrect.
SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers, and not the LCD monitor. Answer
option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix.
NO.14 Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token
Answer: A,C,D
CompTIA JK0-U31 JK0-U31 JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
The following can be used to accomplish authentication.
1.Password
2.Biometrics
3.Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove
identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of
verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process
compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication
server. What is biometrics?Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical
characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities
to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal
scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device
or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication.
Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication.
NO.15 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 5 meters
Answer: C
CompTIA JK0-U31 JK0-U31 examen certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
The maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port is 4.5 meters. What is IEEE
1394? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial
bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include
consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394
is also known as Fire wire. Answer option D is incorrect. The maximum cable length to connect a
device to USB
1.1 and USB 2.0 ports is 5 meters. What is USB? Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus
standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides
the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging,
which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single
USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives,
keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0
has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1.
NO.16 Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD)
card, MMC card, and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B
CompTIA JK0-U31 examen JK0-U31 examen JK0-U31
Explanation:
A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a
memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC). Answer
option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a
communications medium between the smart card and a host. Answer option D is
incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for reading printed
barcodes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader.
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