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Code d'Examen: MOFF-EN
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

EXIN examen   certification MOFF-EN   MOFF-EN   MOFF-EN examen

NO.2 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?Does the concept ?ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

EXIN   MOFF-EN   MOFF-EN   certification MOFF-EN

NO.4 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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NO.5 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in
the Plan Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification EMC pratique d'examen E20-670 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-670
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670   E20-670 examen   E20-670 examen   E20-670

NO.2 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

EMC   E20-670   E20-670

NO.3 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670

NO.4 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670 examen   E20-670   E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.5 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

certification EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.6 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

certification EMC   certification E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.7 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.8 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.9 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.10 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670   E20-670

NO.11 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.12 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.13 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.14 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-670 examen   E20-670

NO.15 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

EMC   E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.16 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.17 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-670   certification E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.18 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670 examen

NO.19 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.20 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

EMC   E20-670   certification E20-670

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Code d'Examen: E20-080
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E20-080   E20-080   E20-080 examen

NO.2 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-080   E20-080

NO.3 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

EMC   E20-080   E20-080

NO.4 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-080   E20-080 examen   E20-080

NO.5 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080   E20-080 examen   certification E20-080

NO.6 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.7 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

certification EMC   E20-080   E20-080

NO.8 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080   certification E20-080   certification E20-080

NO.9 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080 examen   certification E20-080   E20-080 examen

NO.10 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080

NO.11 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-080 examen   certification E20-080

NO.12 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

EMC   E20-080   E20-080 examen

NO.13 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

EMC   E20-080 examen   E20-080   E20-080 examen   E20-080

NO.14 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-080   E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080   certification E20-080

NO.15 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-080 examen   E20-080   E20-080

NO.16 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-080   E20-080

NO.17 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

EMC   certification E20-080   E20-080 examen   certification E20-080

NO.18 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.19 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080   E20-080 examen   certification E20-080

NO.20 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-080   E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080

NO.21 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

certification EMC   E20-080   E20-080

NO.22 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

certification EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.23 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-080   certification E20-080   E20-080 examen

NO.24 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.25 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-080 examen   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.26 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.27 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.28 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

certification EMC   certification E20-080   E20-080   E20-080 examen   E20-080

NO.29 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-080   certification E20-080   certification E20-080

NO.30 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

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Dernières EMC E20-465 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-465
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 169 Q&As

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NO.1 How do you delete a repository?
A. use Documentum Administrator to delete the files used for the repository's tablespaces
B. use Documentum Server Manager
C. select Configuration > Repository option in Documentum Administrator
D. use any database utility to drop the tablespaces used by the repository
Answer: B

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NO.2 What must exist in an API script to dump your repository?
A. dump,c,dmr_content
B. dump,c,dmr_containment
C. create,c,dmi_dump_object_record
D. create,c,dm_dump_record
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user has left your company. There is an object that is still checked out by that user.
How would you remove the lock from this document?
A. delete the user using Documentum Administrator and all the documents checked out to this user will
automatically have the lock removed
B. change the r_lock_owner attribute of the document to "dmadmin"; dmadmin will now own the
document and can cancel checkout
C. unlock the document using the API
D. check the document in using a superuser account
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which user account will be used when running the Repository Configuration program?
A. superuser
B. installation owner
C. web user
D. database user
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the correct API syntax for retrieving the r_object_id of a dm_document with the name, 'test1'?
A. retrieve,c,dm_folder where object_name='test1'
B. id,c,select dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
C. retrieve,c,select dm_document where object_name='test1'
D. id,c,dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the Consistency Checker?
A. to check for object corruption within the repository and provide a report
B. to check and correct object corruption within the repository and provide a report
C. to check the file stores for corruption and provide a report
D. to check the repository for corruption, fix the problem, and provide a report
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the minimal user account settings and access rights needed by the designated BOF Global
Registry user?
A. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder in the
repository.
B. The user has an OS or Directory Server account and has READ only access to the
/System/Modules/SBO folder in the repository.
C. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder and
the folders/documents in the repository that will be accessed using SBOs.
D. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the entire repository.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are the minimum prerequisite components for a Documentum Administrator installation on a
dedicated application server host?
A. database client, application server, and Java SDK
B. application server, Java SDK, and web server
C. application server and Java SDK
D. application server, Java SDK, PHP, and Perl
Answer: C

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NO.9 When using a resource agent to view a log, which option CANNOT be used to sort the log entries?
A. Log level
B. Event type
C. Severity
D. From the first entry to the last entry
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is FALSE regarding resource agents?
A. Resource agents allow you to specify a minimum log level to view.
B. Resource agents allow you to change configuration settings.
C. Resource agents provide another way to receive notifications.
D. Resource agents cannot execute operations.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which specific directories do the DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM environment variables represent in
a Content Server installation with one or more repositories?
A. DM_HOME is the base directory for all Content Server binaries and repository configurations;
DOCUMENTUM is the working directory used by server processes.
B. DM_HOME is the directory for the Content Server binaries; DOCUMENTUM is the base directory
under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored.
C. DM_HOME is the base directory under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored;
DOCUMENTUM is the directory for the Content Server binaries.
D. DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM have the same value and point to the base directory for all server
binaries and repository configurations.
Answer: B

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NO.12 During the configuration of a repository you provide the following information: repository ID, repository
name, and database owner.
Where does Documentum store this information?
A. dfc.properties
B. server.ini
C. [repository name].ini
D. docbroker.ini
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your repository dump has just completed. <DUMP_RECORD_OBJECT_ID> is the object id of your
dm_dump_record.
Which DQL statement would you run to determine how many repository objects were copied into your
dump file?
A. select count(*) from dmi_dump_object_record where dump_object =
'<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
B. select count(*) from dm_sysobject where r_object_id in (select <DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID> from
dm_dump_record)
C. select count(*) from dm_dump_record where dump_object = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
D. select count(*) from dmr_content where r_object_id = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
Answer: A

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NO.14 After installing the Content Server, you change the default passphrase.
What utility script must be run when the Content Server is restarted?
A. dm_check_password
B. dm_crypto_boot
C. dm_crypto_create
D. dm_change_password
Answer: B

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NO.15 A repository has an installation owner account 'dmadmin' and a repository owner account 'sop.'
What is the difference between these two accounts?
A. The Documentum installation owner and the repository owner accounts have identical roles.
B. The Documentum installation owner is a regular user in a repository; the repository owner has
administrative rights over the repository.
C. The Documentum installation owner is a superuser in the repository; the repository owner account
owns the database tables used by the repository.
D. While both users have administration privileges, the installation owner owns the repository database
tables.
Answer: C

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NO.16 In addition to a supported OS, what is the minimal requirement for a successful Content Server
installation and repository configuration?
A. database software and Java SDK
B. Java SDK
C. database software, Java SDK, and application server
D. database software
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a resource agent?
A. It is a JMX-based monitoring tool that is accessible using Documentum Administrator.
B. It is a feature of Application Builder, used to help manage lifecycles.
C. It is a process used in conjunction with the Index Server to provide full-text indexing.
D. It is a feature of WDK which allows administrators to more easily deploy components given to them by
a developer.
Answer: A

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NO.18 When installing the Content Server, the installer deploys several default services which run on the
Java Method Server.
Which services are deployed?
A. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS), Documentum
Messaging Services (DMS)
B. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
C. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Messaging Services (DMS), Documentum
Foundation Services (DFS)
D. Documentum Foundation Services (DFS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS)
Answer: B

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NO.19 A user is not able to create a document in a repository.
How do you diagnose the problem?
A. check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory and check for sufficient database space
B. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient database space
C. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory
D. check that the server log is not full
Answer: B

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NO.20 By default, what is stored specifically in the DOCUMENTUM\dba\secure directory?
A. keystore(s) for certificates used by LDAP over SSL
B. encrypted database user passwords for repository owners
C. encrypted passphrase for the Content Server installation
D. keystores used for Trusted Content Services
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-591
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Solutions Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 You are asked to propose a serverless backup solution for the following environment:
Which EMC product would you recommend to support this environment?
A. RecoverPoint
B. Avamar
C. Data Domain
D. NetWorker
Answer: C

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NO.2 An EMC customer has an EMC NetWorker server running on a Microsoft Windows host and
two storage nodes running on Solaris hosts. Data Protection Advisor (DPA) will be installed on a
separate Windows host. The customer requires that system performance information be collected
from the backup server and all storage nodes.
A Collector will be installed on the DPA server by default. At a minimum, how many additional
Collectors need to be deployed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator wants to back up an EMC Celerra with Avamar using a single NDMP
accelerator node. Based on EMC best practices, what is the maximum number of files that can be
backed up per backup job?
A. 5 million
B. 10 million
C. 15 million
D. 20 million
Answer: B

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NO.4 An EMC NetWorker customer needs to improve the RTO for all backups retained onsite. Most
of the backup jobs consist of images and other scientific data. The customer requires daily tape out
for long-term offsite retention. Which product addresses these challenges?
A. EMC Disk Library
B. NetWorker deduplication node
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: B

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NO.5 The backup window of a customer using tape as a target for the current backup solution has
increased over the allowed time. The customer needs to reduce the backup window by adding an
intermediary process to a faster device before going to tape. What is that process?
A. Archiving
B. Rotation
C. Consolidation
D. Staging
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where is deduplicated data stored on a Data Domain system?
A. SATA drives
B. NVRAM
C. SCSI drives
D. PATA drives
Answer: A

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NO.7 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to start performing client backups to a deduplication
node. What is a requirement when scheduling these backups using NetWorker?
A. First backup must be a full backup
B. Database backups must be full backups
C. All backups must be full backups
D. Schedule must not include any incremental backups
Answer: A

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NO.8 An Avamar customer has just deployed a VMware environment. The customer wants to
ensure they receive the highest level of deduplication within the environment. Which type of
backup should be performed?
A. Guest
B. VCB proxy host
C. VADP
D. ESX console
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which Avamar node is dedicated to providing internal Avamar server processes and services?
A. Spare
B. Storage
C. Utility
D. Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which technology is used in an EMC Disk Library to provide tolerance against a double drive
failure?
A. RAIN
B. RAID 6
C. Remote Copy
D. Active Engine Failover
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which EMC NetWorker feature is used to perform a backup based on an event?
A. Application modules
B. Directives
C. Scheduled backups
D. Probe-based backups
Answer: D

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NO.12 An EMC NetWorker customer has added the following application to their environment:
What is a requirement to perform serverless backups?
A. NetWorker storage node software needs to be installed on the Exchange server
B. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications needs to be installed on the proxy server
C. NetWorker Module for Exchange and NetWorker VSS Client for Microsoft Windows
D. NetWorker Module for Exchange needs to be installed on the NetWorker server
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-495
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management xCelerated Composition Platform Application Development Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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NO.2 An application developer is creating a business process template and needs to ensure that certain
pieces of data that are included within a structured data type will be persisted in the repository after the
workflow completes.
To which location should the structured data type data be mapped?
A. process parameters
B. process variables
C. attributes of a package
D. no mapping is required
Answer: C

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NO.3 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which core xCP component is responsible for aggregating business process reporting information?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. Business Activity Monitor
C. Process Engine
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where are exceptions from Outbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm.log
B. log4j.log
C. bps.log
D. server.log
Answer: A

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NO.6 A manual activity has a Pre-Timer defined to send an email notification.
Which task condition for the activity will trigger the email notification?
A. The task is not completed within the specified time after the workflow starts.
B. The task is not completed within the specified time once the activity is created.
C. The task is not created within the specified time after the completion of the previous activity.
D. The task is not created within the specified time after the workflow starts.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which third-party product available from EMC is commonly deployed with TaskSpace to provide
document viewing, redaction, and redlining?
A. Workshare DeltaView
B. Informative Graphics Brava!
C. Adobe Acrobat Reader
D. Documentum Image Services
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where are exceptions from Inbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm-runtime.log
B. bps.log
C. documentum.log
D. server.log
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which xCP component executes automatic runtime activities such as Queue Item Prioritization and
Outbound System Integration activities?
A. TaskSpace
B. Process Engine
C. Process Integrator
D. Content Server
Answer: B

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NO.10 A medical supply company has a product approval workflow where the unique product ID must be
exposed to TaskSpace users in the task list template.
What is the EMC best practice for exposing the ID in the task list template?
A. Customize the query that populates the task list template.
B. Put the product ID into a structured data type.
C. Customize the task list template using the WDK XML configuration.
D. Mark the package data as reportable for BAM.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Users access documents by searching for them using a fulltext query. The query could potentially
return hundreds of thousands of documents; however users are only allowed to access those that were
generated within the user ¯ s o w n depa rt m en t, w h i ch i s a s m a ll nu m be r o f docu m en t s . A ccess i s con tr o ll ed
using an ACL that grants appropriate access by department.
Which data modeling approach will significantly improve the response time for the query without changing
the query semantics?
A. Modify the query to run at the database rather than the fulltext server.
B. Ensure that the ACL assigned to documents does not contain a large number of accessors.
C. Modify the ACL to restrict, rather than grant, access using the access restrictions feature of Trusted
Content Services.
D. Add an attribute value to documents that indicates the originating department and modify the query to
filter on this attribute.
Answer: D

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NO.12 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

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NO.13 Where can an application developer enable tracing for Composer to monitor building or importing a
project?
A. dfc.properties
B. log4j.properties
C. Eclipse preferences
D. composer.properties
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is part of the xCP runtime architecture?
A. Process Integrator
B. Process Reporting Services
C. Process Builder
D. TaskSpace Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.15 A manual activity is designed with performer setting as All users in a group.
Which statement represents the server behavior?
A. A work item is generated for each user in the group and an inbox item is also generated for each user
in the group.
B. A work item is generated for each user in the group but no inbox item is generated.
C. A work item is generated for each user in the group, but only one inbox item is generated for the entire
group.
D. One work item is generated for the entire group and an inbox item is generated for each user in the
group.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which component is responsible for executing outbound data/messaging activity templates from the
Process Integrator?
A. Business Process Server
B. SMTP Server
C. Content Server
D. Java Method Server
Answer: D

EMC   E20-495   E20-495   E20-495 examen

NO.17 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

EMC   E20-495   E20-495 examen

NO.18 An application developer needs to create a business process template that allows a user to modify
individual task instructions for new process instances without having to uninstall the process template.
How should the task instructions be stored?
A. in text documents stored in the repository
B. in a structured data type
C. in process variables
D. in process parameters
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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NO.20 Case workers access a TaskSpace Task List component in order to determine the most important
tasks to work on each day. Workers will filter their task list by two required data fields: Request_date:
DATE
Income: FLOAT
A value in both fields is required in order to sufficiently minimize the number of cases shown in the case
worker's task list.
How must request_date and income be defined to minimize the response time for the task list display?
A. as simple process variables
B. within separate structured data types
C. within the same structured data type
D. as attributes within package data
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E22-186
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the function of the SharePoint Archiving activity?
A. shortcuts SharePoint items into the Native Archive
B. archives SharePoint items into a Mapped folder
C. shortcuts SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
D. archives SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
Answer: B

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NO.2 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

EMC   E22-186   E22-186

NO.3 What is the lowest SharePoint organizational level at which the SharePoint Archive activity can be
configured?
A. Farm
B. Site
C. List
D. Folder
Answer: C

EMC   E22-186   E22-186

NO.4 A Microsoft SharePoint customer's database is running out of space due to excessive content.
What can EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint provide to help the customer.?
A. database compression
B. consolidated user interface
C. dual search mechanisms
D. storage management
Answer: D

EMC   E22-186   E22-186

NO.5 Which mechanism is used by External BLOB Storage to externalize content into the SourceOne
Archive?
A. Server Message Block
B. WCF with HTTP binding
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. WebDAV
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine?
A. a SourceOne activity
B. a SharePoint task
C. a Database stored procedure
D. a SourceOne service
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which layer in the EMC SourceOne architecture handles SharePoint archiving activities?
A. Application
B. Service
C. Provider
D. Data
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is adding a SharePoint Farm server and needs to impersonate a user with these
details:
User name = uname
Domain = corp
Which format is valid for impersonating this user?
A. corp/uname
B. uname.corp
C. uname-corp
D. uname@corp
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the preferred mechanism for SharePoint permission assignment for use with EMC SourceOne
for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. SourceOne Security group
B. Active Directory group
C. Active Directory users
D. Local users
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which web browser property should all end users ensure is enabled to use SharePoint Archive
Search?
A. JavaScript
B. ActiveX plug-in
C. Applets
D. Allow pop-ups
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint search feature can end users and administrators use
to find archived SharePoint content?
A. SharePoint Advanced Search
B. SharePoint Archive Search
C. SourceOne Discovery Manager
D. SourceOne Web Search
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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NO.14 An Active Directory group has permissions for Sites A, B, and C. An end user searches for specific
documents and is presented with results from all three sites.
The SharePoint administrator deletes site B and then creates site D, granting permission to the same
Active Directory group.
The end user conducts the previous search again.
How are the end user's search results affected?
A. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included, but documents from Site B are inaccessible from
search results
B. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
C. only documents from sites A and C are included and are accessible from search results
D. only documents from sites A, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
Answer: B

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NO.15 An archived SharePoint site with permissions exclusively assigned via a custom site-specific group is
deleted. What is the accessibility of the archived content?
A. accessible only by a user with the Administrator role on the Mapped folder
B. accessible only by the Farm Administrator
C. accessible by a user with the Administrator role on the Native Archive folder
D. accessible only after an archive permission update task is run
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator needs to assign permissions for archiving SharePoint sites with EMC SourceOne for
Microsoft SharePoint. What should the administrator use to assign those permissions?
A. SourceOne Admin group
B. SourceOne Security group
C. SharePoint groups
D. SharePoint users
Answer: C

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NO.17 How can an administrator minimize the number of permission updates in a SharePoint archive?
A. add and remove permissions for individual SharePoint users
B. add and remove groups
C. add and remove members to existing groups
D. add and remove permissions for individual Active Directory users
Answer: C

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NO.18 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

EMC   E22-186   E22-186

NO.19 When performing an archive search from within SharePoint, what does the Owner List contain?
A. a list of documents the user owns and can access
B. the list of Mapped folders that the user is attempting to access
C. a list of the current user's SharePoint and Active Directory groups
D. the SourceOne Access Account information and the user's current logon information
Answer: C

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NO.20 The administrator needs to delete a site that has permissions defined via a custom site-specific group.
What should the administrator do before the site is deleted?
A. remove the custom site-specific permission
B. change the ownership of the content to Farm Administrator
C. grant Read access to all SharePoint user accounts
D. assign a higher level group with Read access
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-545
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 Which protocol does VNX support for encrypted network management activities.?
A. SSH
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bits
B. 1024 bits
C. 2048 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this
change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the
array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station ¯ s ce rtifi ca t e au t ho rit y and w b
server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A. server_certificate
B. server_security
C. nas_ca_certificate
D. nas_license
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator
about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A. Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B. IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C. IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D. IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When using the provisioning wizard, how many RAID group options are available?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.6 When generating a Certificate Signing Request (CSR), what is a valid statement about the certificate?
A. The Public key must be an RSA key.
B. The certificate must be set to expire within 20 years.
C. The subject ¯ s O r gan i za ti ona l U n it N a m e m us t be se t t o VNX .
D. The subject ¯ s co mm on na m e m us t be se t t o t he C on tr o l S t a ti o ¡ ¯s IP ad dr es s
Answer: A

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NO.7 What command produces audit summaries for the Control Station?
A. /sbin/aureport
B. /sbin/ausearch
C. /sbin/auditctl
D. /sbin/service
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which drive type benefits least from enabling FAST Cache?
A. Flash
B. NL-SAS
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a valid statement about the characteristics of certificates on the VNX system?
A. Default certificates are in place for SP A, SP B, Control Station(s), and Data Movers
B. Default certificates area self-signed 1024-bit RSA keys
C. All certificates are self-signed
D. Default certificates are self-signed 2048-bit RSA keys
Answer: D

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NO.10 According to EMC best practices, how many secondary Usermappers are recommended in a multiple
VNX array environment?
A. One per VNX array
B. One per Data Mover
C. One per additional VNX array
D. One per VNX environment
Answer: C

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NO.11 What monitoring option is used for file system and network performance?
A. Background Tasks for File
B. Statistics for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Notification Logs for File
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which RAID type can be expanded?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 6
Answer: A

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NO.13 In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two
administrative groups called Auditors and Storage Admins. One of the administrators is a member of both
groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A. The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B. The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C. The first group that the administrator joined
D. The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are the available Usermapper roles?
A. Primary, secondary, and client
B. Primary, local, and remote
C. Local, remote, and client
D. Active, passive, and standby
Answer: A

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NO.15 What monitoring option is used to generate file-related notifications based on a user-defined threshold?
A. Notification Logs for File
B. Background Tasks for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Statistics for File
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-007
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

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NO.3 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.6 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-007   E20-007   E20-007 examen

NO.10 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.11 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-007   E20-007   E20-007   E20-007

NO.13 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.14 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.15 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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NO.16 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

EMC   E20-007   E20-007   E20-007

NO.17 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.18 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.20 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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