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Code d'Examen: ST0-172
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-202
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mobile Management Suite (CMS/ITMS) (March 2013) STS)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.4 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of 1. The
host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow backups to
span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec NetBackup 7.5
use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

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NO.6 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

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NO.7 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 850-001
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Cloud Security 1.0)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-407
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 An organization has mandated that workflow for certain SaaS applications must travel over
slower
leased lines and through the company's cloud in order to mitigate security concerns of the CISO.
Which end user behavior vulnerability can this cause?
A. waiting until close of business to send their data
B. lack of concern with international charges
C. finding an alternate network path
D. disabling personal firewall to maximize bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a valid security concern when designing a cloud architecture that heavily leverages
SaaS
providers?
A. lack of a metered model from the cloud provider
B. inefficient workflows for change control
C. inherent flaws in web-based applications
D. inability to support iOS devices
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company is reaching their maximum CPU load for their email and Web servers, and begins
investigation of public IaaS cloud bursting. The company is concerned about complex attack
vectors launched against the hosted systems. To protect the assets, a number of Symantec
security products will also be migrated. Which Symantec security solution provides continuous
system visibility across all devices and facilitates detection of complex attack vectors?
A. Critical System Protection
B. Security Information Manager
C. Gateway Security
D. Endpoint Protection with Network Threat Protection
Answer: B

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NO.4 A cloud service customer is facing application failure and data corruption in their virtual
infrastructure. The IT department has asked for a solution that will scan for rogue virtual machines,
which will reduce the security risk in physical and virtual infrastructure. Which solution can fulfill
the requirement?
A. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection
D. Symantec Security Information Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 A large international wealth management firm has a liberal mobile device policy for its
employees.
During the pre-adoption period, strategic documents are accessed and saved to the mobile
devices by the workforce. Which data security technology stops employees from sending these
documents to unauthorized parties?
A. data loss protection technologies
B. two-factor authentication technologies
C. web filtering technologies
D. encryption technologies
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which factor exists in many organizations that inhibits an effective IT Governance, Risk, and
Compliance program?
A. High-level reports and dashboards provide a C-Level view of the enterprise risk posture.
B. Policies tied to controls are defined to address multiple regulations and frameworks.
C. Technical controls on assets from multiple business units are regularly evaluated to determine
aggregate risk.
D. Numerous assessment tools are deployed throughout the enterprise, generating vendorspecific
reports.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company is invested heavily in migrating their IT infrastructure to an IaaS cloud provider. It is
determined that the storage infrastructure of the service provider resides in a country with weak
laws on data privacy. As a result, the cloud service provider may be required to turn over the
company's data for legal review. Which action could the company take to prevent the cloud
service provider from disclosing the company's data?
A. require the service provider to encrypt the data
B. migrate the infrastructure to a new cloud provider
C. implement their own legal discovery solution
D. implement their own encryption solution
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the most effective strategy for an IT professional to implement an IT governance, risk,
and
compliance solution in a private cloud?
A. use a checkbox approach to gather IT controls manually to identify high-risk vulnerabilities
B. utilize Excel spreadsheets, email-based questionnaires, or SharePoint sites to thoroughly
document IT controls
C. ensure anti-virus is deployed on all critical assets to stay ahead of threats and avoid data
breaches
D. put an automated program in place to identify vulnerabilities and security gaps and to track
remediation
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-406
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x)
Questions et réponses: 173 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-365
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for Windows(NBU 6.5))
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-057
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 During an early case assessment, it appears that emails of interest are using code words. The
terms
"Red Dog," "Black Cat," and "Green Parrot" appear often in the emails. However, if the word "pet"
appears,
the message is irrelevant.
Which syntax will search for any of the phrases mentioned without the word "pet"?
A. ("Red Dog" OR "Black Cat" OR "Green Parrot") NOT pet
B. ("Red Dog" or "Black Cat" or "Green Parrot") not pet
C. ("Red Dog" OR "Black Cat" OR "Green Parrot") W/O pet
D. ("Red Dog" or "Black Cat" or "Green Parrot") w/o pet
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Case Team receives an email indicating that ongoing updates will be added to each
employee profile
in a Windows domain that is of particular interest to custodian data in the Symantec Clearwell
eDiscovery
Platform 7.x.
What should the Case Team implement in the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x to ensure
that
each custodian profile is updated when the new field is added?
A. Scheduled Backup
B. Scheduled Active Directory Discovery
C. Scheduled Bulk Source Import
D. LDAP Configuration Tester
Answer: B

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NO.3 A System Manager needs to import custodians from the Employee List area using the Import
All from
Active Directory menu option. The System Manager receives the message "No Active Directory
users to
import."
Which task needs to be performed for the import to work successfully?
A. run Active Directory discovery from All Collections Sources area
B. run Active Directory discovery from Email Servers page in System area
C. add Active Directory Domain to crawl as source on the Settings page
D. add Active Directory global catalog server as source first on the Settings page
Answer: B

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NO.4 An organization needs OCR run against a set of TIFF image files as part of a larger data load.
How
should this be accomplished?
A. OCR should be configured to run during initial indexing with all image file types selected.
B. OCR should be configured to run during initial indexing with only TIFF image file types selected.
C. OCR should be turned off during initial indexing and then run against a search result set of all
documents with indexed text.
D. OCR should be turned off during initial indexing and then run against a search result set of the
TIFF
images.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Case User needs to run a search with 20 terms. The Case User has the option of including
these
terms on one line or placing each of the 20 terms on a separate query row.
What are two advantages of placing the terms on separate query rows? (Select two.)
A. The user can create a saved search and choose to Highlight Terms if the terms are on separate
query
rows.
B. The user can view the terms' stemmed variations if the terms are on separate query rows.
C. The user can create a search report that includes more specific details about each search term.
D. The user can use Search Filters to view the list of words and corresponding documents hit.
E. The user can de-select stemming for each term if the terms are on separate query rows.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 A Case Team needs to search for all items that include the word "jasmin" because it refers to a
project
that is under investigation. The Case Team also wants to include variations such as "jasmen,"
"jasmine,"
and "jasminum". In addition to running the search now, the search will be saved and run after
additional
data has been added. Stemming is enabled for this case.
Which search syntax or functionality should be used?
A. jasmin
B. jasm*
C. jasm?
D. jasm???
Answer: B

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NO.7 An organization plans to switch from Microsoft Exchange to an Open Source mail platform.
The
organization will replace Outlook on all user machines with a new mail program that stores
messages in
the MBOX format.
Which workflow should the System Manager implement to properly process email from the new
system?
A. collect the mail and leave it in its MBOX format, as Clearwell can process mail in the MBOX
format
B. collect the mail, leave it in its MBOX format, and have it converted to Outlook (PST) by a third
party
before processing in Clearwell
C. employ a third-party software solution to convert the MBOX files to Outlook (PST), then process
the
converted files in Clearwell
D. collect the mail and prepare to review it in its native format, then convert only responsive
messages to
Outlook (PST) for processing in Clearwell
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is purpose of the File Based Search in Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x?
A. to run searches that cannot be run via the search UI due to term expansion limitations
B. to provide a way to export only the "Keywords" section data to a CSV file
C. a new way to produce tangible evidence of the Legal Hold notifications that have been created,
their
status, and the custodian actions
D. to place a "hold" on information in its current Enterprise Vault location without collecting or
copying the
data
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 250-223
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-407
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-173
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be
updated. Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have
been updated, the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the
database.
However, after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an
old date instead of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because
several policies were modified at the sametime.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though
the agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire
2099" has been installed on company desktops.
The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser
toolbar and needs to be removed immediately.
The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that
they can receive a private email about the situation.
Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an
application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight
Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running.
Which policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints
across a company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification
Server is slower during the inventory scan times.
Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to reduce the processing impact on the
Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weeklyschedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.6 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application.
During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be
changed without modifying the MSI.
The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package.
Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is
modified in the Software Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?
A.CSV Lookup
B.Live LDAP Lookup
C.Active Directory Integration Lookup
D.Directory Server Lookup
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier
policies such as IDM or EDM?
A.is.ead
B.ttds.ead
C.ks.ead
D.cg.ead
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

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NO.5 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Incident Dashboard
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two examples of confidential data? (Select two.)
A.manufacturing plant locations
B.published press releases
C.stock performance history
D.CAD drawings
E.employee health information
Answer: DE

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NO.7 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

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NO.8 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-147
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 253 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC IT Compliance 2010)
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-371
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 255 Q&As

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NO.1 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

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NO.2 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator has a tape that has been previously used by Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for client
backups but no longer contains valid data. The barcode has been changed and the tape has been moved
to a different Symantec NetBackup domain. Which action will allow this tape to be used in the new
domain?
A. move the tape to the scratch volume pool
B. relabel the tape
C. deassign the media
D. inventory the robotic library
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator tries to suspend an active job from the Symantec NetBackup Activity Monitor but
discovers that the option is grayed out. What is preventing the administrator from suspending the job?
A. Encryption is enabled.
B. The parent job is still active.
C. Multiplexing is enabled.
D. Checkpoint restart is disabled.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-311
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-512
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5)
Questions et réponses: 270 Q&As

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NO.1 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

Symantec   certification 250-311   250-311

NO.3 The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs
three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the
ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.
How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift?
(Choose two.)
A. create one group for all computers in the facility
B. create one group for all users in the facility
C. create one group for all computers on each shift
D. create one group for all users on each shift
E. switch the clients to computer mode
F. switch the clients to user mode
Answer: DF

Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311

NO.4 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec
Endpoint Protection.
Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.7 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.8 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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Code d'Examen: 250-223
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-315
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.4 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.8 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 251-351
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 253 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-250
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Code d'Examen: 250-265
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NO.1 Given the following information: include "types.cf" cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron
= alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne =
lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList
= { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } )
group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators =
{ edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A.aaron
B.barbara
C.carmen
D.edward
E.fung
F.georgia
Correct:A D

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NO.2 A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe,
and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe
service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what
happens to SGb?
A.It goes to system S1.
B.It goes to system S2.
C.It goes to system S3.
D.It remains offline.
Correct:B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.3 Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose
two.)
A.main.cf
B.main.cf.previous
C.main.cf.sim
D.types.cf
E.types.cf.previous
F.types.cf.sim
Correct:A D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.4 Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external
conditions before bringing the service group online?
A.PreOnlining
B.PreOnline
C.Priority
D.Probed
Correct:B

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NO.5 What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.RoundRobin
C.Order
D.Failover
E.Capacity
Correct:A B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.6 A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover
objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately
the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this
with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A.Load
B.Priority
C.RoundRobin
D.Average
Correct:C

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NO.7 During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the
service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster.
The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default
attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Correct:C

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NO.8 An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of
resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A.RegKey
B.KeyRep
C.Replicate
D.RegRep
Correct:D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.9 Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server
Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
A.power off/on a system
B.delete a system
C.fault a resource
D.fault a heartbeat link
E.power off/on a disk array
F.remove a heartbeat link
Correct:A C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.10 Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A.UserAccount
B.Instance
C.DetailMonitor
D.LanmanResName
E.MountV
Correct:B D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.11 If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the
service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A.The ManageFault attribute is set.
B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Correct:B C

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but
the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server
Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?
A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.13 Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A.MonitorTimeOut
B.MonitorInterval
C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D.OnlineMonitorInterval
Correct:B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.14 You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator
session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to
the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose
two.)
A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B.The VCS Simulator is not running.
C.The port number is incorrect.
D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E.The ClusterService group is offline.
Correct:B C

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NO.15 What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.16 A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is
the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A.NONE
B.ALL
C.READ_ONLY
D.READ_WRITE
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.17 Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any
configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail
over to the node with Exchange running on it?
A.Round-robin
B.Priority
C.Load
D.Exclusive
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.18 A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can
clear the fault?
A.any Cluster Administrator
B.any Cluster Guest
C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.19 A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA,
SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and
SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?
A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.20 What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: ASC-099
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Archiving and eDiscovery 2010)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-100
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-309
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-370
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 223 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-314
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010)
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-086
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.2 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.4 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

Symantec   ST0-100   certification ST0-100   ST0-100 examen   ST0-100

NO.5 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.7 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-100   certification ST0-100

NO.10 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.11 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

Symantec   certification ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.13 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.15 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-100   ST0-100   certification ST0-100   certification ST0-100

NO.16 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

certification Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100 examen

NO.17 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.18 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

certification Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.20 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: 250-310
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-403
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.1)
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Code d'Examen: 250-402
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)
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Code d'Examen: ST0-118
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment)
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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)
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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen)
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Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.2 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.3 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each
group. How many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in
the environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.11 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be
installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.16 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.18 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.19 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: A,D

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NO.21 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.22 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.23 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.24 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.25 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.26 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.27 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. Break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. Configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. Select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. Add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.29 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.30 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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