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Code d'Examen: 1z1-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-409
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux Fundamentals (Oracle PartnerNetwork))
Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-536
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Exadata 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.4 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.8 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-482
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Data Integrator 11g Certified Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-062
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

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NO.1 The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a
user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server
processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?
A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using
this service for creating a local naming service"
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the
tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
undo_management string AUTO undo_retentioninteger 12 00 undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of
space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the
undo before that time has elapsed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Answer: A,B,E

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01 /server.111 /b28310/scheduse009.htm#ADMIN12459
12. Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?
A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view
Answer: C,D

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13. A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection.
You want to ensure the following:
1.The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2.Data read per session must be limited for the user. 3- The user cannot have more than three
simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off
automatically.
How would you accomplish this?
A. by granting a secure application role to the user
B. by implementing Database Resource Manager
C. by using Oracle Label Security options
D. by assigning a profile to the user
Answer: D

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14. Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?
A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by
DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
Answer: C

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15. As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database
such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ
database. SCOTT's password is TIGER. The service mane "HQ" is used to connect to the remote HQ
database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?
A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING 'HQ';
B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ' S
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical
database structures?
A. A segment cannot span data files.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.
Answer: B,C

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Reference: https://mohibalvi.wordpress.com/tag/alter-tablespace/

NO.5 Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan?
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
Answer: A,B

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102 /b14211 /optimops.htm

NO.6 What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics
completes?
A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the
maintenance window opens.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?
A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
Answer: D

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102 /b14220/process.htm (see log writer
process (LGWR))

NO.8 The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table: ERROR at line
1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management
(ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?
A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the
HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a
nonzero value
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.2 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.3 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.6 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

Oracle   1z1-497   1z1-497

NO.8 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-862
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Web Services Developer Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 183 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-525
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Applications 7.9.6 for ERP Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three variable tu\ype does the BI Applications data model support for specifying currencies?
A. Document
B. Local
C. Global
D. Override
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.2 Which is true regarding the location of Informatica PowerCenter client tools installation?
A. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the transactional database.
B. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the DAC Server.
C. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the OBAW database.
D. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the DAC client.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can you be sure to access a specific data source in a default Oracle BI Applications installation for
users working from a client machine? Assume that log level 2 has been enabled.
A. With log level 2 or higer enabled in the NqsConfig. ini, you can check the SQL from the query log of a
specific Answers request. Read the SQL and check the connection pool(s) used and the data source
name(s).
B. The only data source in a standard BI Applications installation is the data warehouse. This source is
defined in DAC in the Setup View under Physical Data Surces. You can alx\so check the (native)
Connection credentials.
C. Sources can range from data wareshouse to OLTP systems. Their connections are named in
connection pools in the BI reposity. Using these connection names you can check the (native) connection
credentials.
D. All physical connections are defined in Informatica Powercenter Repository Manager. Log in and check
all connection credentials.
E. Users can log in to Aswers, the BI repository, DAC or Informatica to check connection credentials and
data source names.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which condition results in a source record being neglected during incremental load?
A. INTIAL_UPDATE_DATE >= LAST_EXTRACT_DATE
B. LAST_UPDATE_DATE >= LAST_EXTRACT_DATE
C. LAST_UPDATE+DATE >= INITIAL_EXTRACT_DATE
D. LAST_UPDATE_DATE <= LAST_ EXTRACT_DATE
Answer: D

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NO.5 A new source is available containing several big tables with over 2 million rows of data. Some of this
data is needs in Oracle BI analysis, combind with existing data sources. What are your options to enable
this combined analysis?
A. Analyze the needed data and needed granularity. If applicable create aggregation tables and
partitioned tables in the source database. Apply a type 2 customization in Informatica PowerCenter and
modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects
and enable aggregate navigation and pertition navigation. Enable cross analysis in the logical layer. Use
simple requests and analyze the request performance on the new data.
B. Apply a type 2 customization in Informatica PowerCenter to include the necessaryt data warehouse
objects and modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the Bi repository with the new data
warehouse objects and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation.
C. Apply a type 1 customization in Informatica PowerCenter to include the necessaryt data warehouse
objects and modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the Bi repository with the new data
warehouse objects and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in
the logical layer.
D. Analyze the needed data and needed granularily. If applicable create aggregation tables and
partitioned tables in the source database. Apply a type 1 customization in Informatica PowerCenter and
modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects
and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation.
E. Normalize the new data source into smaller tables and apply a type 2 customization in Informatica
PowerCenter. Apply changes in DAC to read the new source data have execution plans load the needed
data into the data warehouse. Model the BI repositorty with the new data warehouse objects and enable
aggregate navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in the logical layer.
F. Normalize the new data source into smaller tables and apply a type 1 customization in Informatica
PowerCenter. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects and enable aggregate
navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in the logical layer.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A large insurance company ABC-Safe uses PeopleSoft and Hyperion Planning & Budgeting for
Financial Analytics and a third-party software package for HR Compensatio. ABC-Safe wants to have a
consolidated picture of its finances and compensation packages. What would you advise?
A. Immediately enhance the existing Oracle BI Financial Application with HR analytics.
B. Perform a fit-gap analysis on the usability of the ETL for HR analytics and cross functionality with
Financial Applications and present a business case for extending the Oracle BI Applications environment
with Oracle BI HR analytics or enhance the existing BI applications environment with HR data by building
the ETL, enhance the BI repository, Reports& Dashboards, security and other needed elements.
C. Oracle BI applications cannot be enhanced by data from third-party software packages.
D. Offer implementing Oracle BI HR Analytics, inckuding a calculation for reusing prebuilt ETL using the
Universal connector.
E. Offer implementing Oracle BI Standard Edition One, including a Compensation warehouse setup in
Warehouse Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the default location where paramether files are created by DAC?
A. $DAC_HOME\Informatica\server\parameters
B. $DAC_HOME\Informatica\parameters
C. $DAC_HOME\ parameters
D. $DAC_HOME\ server\infa_shared\BWParam
Answer: B

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NO.8 The webcat structure, along with various other presentation parameters are stored in: .?
A. DBFeatures. ini
B. Instanceconfig. xml
C. NQSConfig. ini
D. Repository File (.rpd)
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-046
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: Managing Oracle on Linux for DBAs)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-047
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database SQL Expert)
Questions et réponses: 260 Q&As

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NO.1 A non-General Public License (GPL) driver was loaded on a Linux machine. To verify that the module
has tainted the kernel, you executed the cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted command and received the following
output:
[root@edtdr6p1 root]# cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted
1
What do you infer from the output? (Choose all that apply.)
A.A proprietary module has been loaded.
B.A module is marked unsupported by the vendor.
C.All the loaded modules have General Public License (GPL).
D.A module was force-loaded by using the insmod -f command.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.2 Which command would you use to identify the users that belong to the oradba group?
A.id -G
B.uname -g
C.grep

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-042
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:Administration I)
Questions et réponses: 185 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-023
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Architecture and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 151 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.2 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.3 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.4 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.5 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.6 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.7 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.8 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-584
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Human Capital Management 11g Human Resources Essentials)
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Code d'Examen: 1z0-151
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Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 To avoid overloading the database during busy times, you decide to restrict the queries that
are
executed on the Orders form so that users query by either Order ID or Customer ID during these
times.
Which trigger is most appropriate for the code to enforce this restriction?
A. When-New-Form-instance
B. When-New-Block-instance
C. On-Query
D. Pre-Query
E. Post-Query
Answer: D

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NO.2 When tabbing through items in the Employees form, users should not be able to navigate to
the Salary
text item. If they need to update the item, they will have to explicitly navigate to it by using the
mouse.
Which property setting accomplishes this requirement.?
A. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = No
B. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
C. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
D. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = No
E. Automatic Skip = Yes
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Orders database table uses Order_id as its primary key. You have written the following
code to use
in the Orders block of a form:
SELECT orders_seq.NEXTVAL
INTO :orders.order_id
FROM SYS.dual;
Which statement is true about this code?
A. If you place thisCodeina trigger that fires when the record isinsertedinto the database, you will
likely
have more gapsinOrderIDs than if you use the sequence as a default value for the item.
B. If you place this codeina trigger, you should ensure that Order_Id hasitsrequiredproperty set to
Yes.
C. If you place this codeina trigger, you should ensure that Order_Id has its Database Item property
set to
No.
D. If the named sequence does not exist, it is automatically created the first time the code is called.
E. You should place this code aina database trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
F. You should place this codeinPre-insert trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
G. You should place this codeina Post_insert trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
Answer: F

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NO.4 You are implementing a JavaBean in a form, the bean has no visible component on the form
when
invoked, the bean displays an input text where users enter a zip code, the bean has a single method
that
returns a short weather forecast for that zip code as a character value.
How can you retrieve that value so that you can display it to the user?
A. Use FBEAN.ENABLE_EVENT to register a listener for the bean event. Obtainthe value of
SYSTEM.CUSTOM_ITEM_EVENTina When-Custom item Event trigger, and then use that value as an
argument to the MESSAGE builtin.
B. Use FBEAN.REGISTER_BEAN as an argument to the MESSAGE builtintoinvoke the bean's method
and return the value as a message displayed to the user.
C. Use FBEAN.REGISTER_BEAN to register the bean, so that when the user enters a zip codeinto the
bean sinput text, the value is automatically displayedinthe bean area item.
D. Use FBEAN.ENABLE_EVENT to register a listener for the bean event. Obtainthe value of
SYSTEM.CUSTOM_EVENT_PARAMETERina When_Custom-item-Event trigger, and then use that
value as an argument to the MESSAGE built-in.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which four types of variables must have their names preceded by a colon when they are
referenced in
trigger code?
A. PL/SQL variables
B. Form items
C. global variables
D. system variables
E. parameters
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.6 View the Exhibit.
The Departments table in the database contains four columns. In a new form, you use the Data
Block
Wizard to add all columns to the block, but in the layout Wizard, you choose all columns except
Location_Id to add to the canvas. The Object Navigator and layout Editor appear as shown in the
Exhibit.
You then decide that you do need to display Location_Id on the canvas.
What object must you select before invoking the Layout Editor in re-entrant mode to make this
change?
A. the text item toolinthe Layout Editor
B. Frame 16ineither the Object Navigator or the layout Editor
C. Canvas4ineither the Object Navigatoror the Layout Editor
D. Location_Idinthe Object Navigator
E. the Departments data blockinthe Object Navigator
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Order Entry application contains several forms. The inventories form uses an LOV that is
based on
a record group that queries the Warehouses table to return a warehouse ID.
Several of the forms use LOVs that are based on the same query. You decide to centralize the
creation of
the record group to the entry form of the application, which opens all the other forms, for example,
to open
the inventories form, there is a When-Button Pressed trigger on the inventories button with the
following
code;
OPEN _FORM ('inventories');
in a When-New-Form-instance trigger for the entry form, you create the warehouse_rg record
group by
using the CREATE_GROUP_QUERY built in with the following arguments:
('warehouse_rg' , 'SELECT ALL WAREHOUSE.WAREHOUSE_ID, WAREHOUSE.WAREHOUSE_NAME
FORM WAREHOUSE order by warehouse_name);
You also populate the record group in this trigger.
What must you do to make this record group available to the inventories form and the other forms?
A. inthe When-New-Form-instance trigger for the entry form, add a values for the SCOPE argument
of
CREATE_GROUP_QUERY.
B. inthe entry form, move the record group code to the end of the When-Button-Pressed triggers
for the
buttons that open other forms, so that the record group is created and populated immediately after
OPEN_FORM is called.
C. inthe entry form, move the record group code to the beginning of the When-Button-Pressed
triggers for
the button that open other forms, so that the record group is created and populated just before
OPEN_FORM is called.
D. inthe When-Button_Pressed triggers of the entry from the buttons that open other forms, add a
value
for the SESSION argument of OPEN_FORM.
E. inthe other forms, refer to the record group as: global.warehouse_rg.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The Credit_Rating item in the Customers block of an Order Entry form must be restricted to
three
possible values: Good, Poor, or Null (the latter value indicates that the credit rating has not been
determined). Order entry clerks must be able to update this item to any of the preceding three
values.
You want to change the item to a check box labeled "Credit Risk" that should be selected if the
customer
has poor credit, the check box should not be selected if the customer's credit rating is good or
undetermined.
You change the item type to Checkbox, set other properties as shown in the Exhibit, and then run
your
form and insert three records: two with good credit and the check box deselected, and one with
poor
credit and the check box selected. You commit the data and query the records, with the following
result
set: The first two records show an undetermined credit rating, although your intention was to set
the value
to Good for these customers.
What change must you make in the properties of the Credit_Ratinq item to enable values of Good,
Poor,
and Null to be entered?
A. Change theinitial Value property to Good.
B. Change the Check Box Mapping of Other Values property to Not Allowed.
C. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Value When Unchecked property to Null.
D. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Chock Box Mapping of Other Valued property
to Null.
E. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Check Box Mapping of Other Values property to
checked.
F. Change the item type. It is not appropriate to use a check box to enable entry and update of more
than
two valuesinan item.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-060
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-051
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I)
Questions et réponses: 292 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

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NO.3 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

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NO.4 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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NO.6 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-147
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle9i program with pl/sql)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-599
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a table with the following definition: CREATE TABLE long_tab (id NUMBER, long_col
LONG); You need to convert the LONG_COL column from a LONG data type to a LOB data type.
Which statement accomplishes this task?
A.ALTER TABLE long_tab MODIFY (LONG_COL CLOB);
B.EXECUTE dbms_lob.migrate(long_tab, long_col, clob)
C.EXECUTE dbms_manage.lob.migrate(long_tab, long_col, clob)
D.EXECUTE utl_lob.migrate(long_tab, long_col, clob)
E.EXECUTE utl_manage_lob.migrate(long_tab, long_col, clob)
Correct:A

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NO.2 Examine this procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER (V_ID IN NUMBER,
V_LAST_NAME VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID,LAST_NAME) VALUES (V_ID,
V_LAST_NAME); COMMIT; END; This procedure must invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure and
pass a parameter. Which statement, when added to the above procedure, will successfully invoke
the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure?
A.EXECUTE UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
B.UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
C.RUN UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
D.START UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
Correct:B

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NO.3 Examine this package:
A.The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remains 0.00 in a session.
B.The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 each time the package is invoked in a session.
C.The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1.00 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.
D.The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 when the package is invoked for the first time in a
session.
Correct:D

certification Oracle   1Z0-147   certification 1Z0-147

NO.4 Procedure PROCESS_EMP references the table EMP . Procedure UPDATE_EMP updates rows
of table EMP through procedure PROCESS_EMP . There is a remote procedure QUERY_EMP that
queries the EMP table through the local procedure PROCESS_EMP . The dependency mode is set
to TIMESTAMP in this session. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.If the signature of procedure PROCESS_EMP is modified and successfully recompiles, the EMP table
is invalidated.
B.If internal logic of procedure PROCESS_EMP is modified and successfully recompiles, UPDATE_EMP
gets invalidated and will recompile when invoked for the first time.
C.If the signature of procedure PROCESS_EMP is modified and successfully recompiles, UPDATE_EMP
gets invalidated and will recompile when invoked for the first time.
D.If internal logic of procedure PROCESS_EMP is modified and successfully recompiles, QUERY_EMP
gets invalidated and will recompile when invoked for the first time.
E.If internal logic of procedure PROCESS_EMP is modified and successfully recompiles, QUERY_EMP
gets invalidated and will recompile when invoked for the second time.
Correct:B E

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NO.5 Examine this code:
A.This function is invalid.
B.This function can be used against any table.
C.This function cannot be used in a SELECT statement.
D.This function can be used only if the two parameters passed in are not null values.
E.This function will generate a string based on 2 character values passed into the function.
F.This function can be used only on tables where there is a p_first and p_last column.
Correct:B E

certification Oracle   1Z0-147   certification 1Z0-147

NO.6 You need to create a DML trigger. Which five pieces need to be identified? (Choose five.)
A.table
B.DML event
C.trigger body
D.package body
E.package name
F.trigger name
G.system event
H.trigger timing
Correct:A B C F H

certification Oracle   1Z0-147   certification 1Z0-147

NO.7 All users currently have the INSERT privilege on the PLAYER table. You only want your users
to insert into this table using the ADD_PLAYER procedure. Which two actions must you take?
(Choose two.)
A.GRANT SELECT ON ADD_PLAYER TO PUBLIC;
B.GRANT EXECUTE ON ADD_PLAYER TO PUBLIC;
C.GRANT INSERT ON PLAYER TO PUBLIC;
D.GRANT EXECUTE,INSERT ON ADD_PLAYER TO PUBLIC;
E.REVOKE INSERT ON PLAYER FROM PUBLIC;
Correct:B E

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NO.8 What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?
A.Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B.Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C.Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D.Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-045
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:new features for Oracle8i ocps)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-055
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit exhibit1.
In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is "CA", the value of
COUNTRY_ID is "US"
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.
The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What
can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
Answer: D

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NO.2 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Answer: A

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NO.4 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the
initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)
FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_category;
Where would the result of this query be stored?
A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache
Answer: C

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NO.7 You issued the following command:
CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area
(startdate DATE,
enddate DATE,
class CHAR(20))
ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS
TABLESPACE tbs_t1;
An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.
Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)
A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.
B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.
C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
SET LONG 10000
DECLARE report clob;
BEGIN
report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);
END;
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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