2013年7月31日星期三

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-837

Nom d'Examen: Apple (Logic Pro 9 Level One End User Exam)

Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 The tracks in the above image have different track heights. How can you resize all tracks to be the same
height in one step.?
A. Double-click above the Global Track label.
B. Double-click the lower-left corner of any of the track headers.
C. Shift-click the upper-left corner of any of the track headers.
D. Shift-click the lower-left corner of any of the track headers.
Answer: D

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NO.2 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the button that will allow you to see the patterns of all instruments at one time.
Answer:

NO.3 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the tool best suited for selecting an area within a region.
Answer:

NO.4 How do you see a list of a project's audio files and regions as shown in this image?
A. Click the Bin tab in the Media area.
B. Choose Options > Audio.
C. In the Arrange window's local menu, choose Track > Sort Tracks by > Audio Channel.
D. Double-click an audio region in the Arrange area.
E. Option-click an audio region in the Arrange area.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Double-clicking this region produces what result?
A. Multiple lanes below the region will be displayed for quick swipe comping.
B. The contents will be shown in the Sample Editor.
C. The Arrange area will display the contents of the region.
D. The Piano Roll will open and display the contents.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How do you create the folder track shown in the above image?
A. In the Arrange window, select multiple regions and Option-click one of the selected regions.
B. In the Arrange window, select multiple regions and choose Track > New for Selected Regions.
C. In the Arrange window, select multiple regions and choose View > Hide Current Track and Select
Next Track.
D. In the Arrange window, select multiple regions and choose Region > Folder > Pack Folder.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Since 24-Bit Recording is not selected, what will be the bit depth for recorded audio files?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 48
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the image above, clicking at the current pointer position will produce what result?
A. The playhead will move to just before bar 6.
B. Cycle mode will be turned off.
C. Logic will begin recording just before bar 6.
D. A marker will be inserted.
Answer: B

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NO.9 HOTSPOT
In the image below, click the item that allows you to access Channel Strip presets.
Answer:

NO.10 What does the triangle circled in red do?
A. Allows you to display more automation parameters for the same track.
B. Allows you to resize the track.
C. Displays the track's channel strip.
D. Displays automation modes.
E. Displays the track's group settings.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-517

Nom d'Examen: Apple (ACTC 10.7 Recertification Exam)

Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.
Using AFP, you copy a file from your Mac into the shared folder shown above. Members of the staff group
report that they are unable to edit the file.
Assuming no ACLs have been configured, what is the MOST LIKELY reason for this issue.?
A. Everyone permissions apply to the staff group because the staff group's GID has been changed.
B. The file is locked.
C. The group permission for the file is set to read-only.
D. Members of the staff group do not have write access to /tmp/_caches on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which protocols can a computer use to connect to the VPN service running on an OS X Lion Server
v10.7.3 (or later)?
A. Cisco IPSec and SSL VPN
B. PPTP and Cisco IPSec
C. L2TP and PPTP
D. PPTP and SSL VPN
E. L2TP and Cisco IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does VPN service support OS X Lion Server security?
A. VPN determines whether an incoming packet is a legitimate response to an outgoing request, or part of
an ongoing session.
B. VPN provides strong authentication, and encrypted data transport between devices.
C. VPN provides a framework for the authentication methods available to the server.
D. VPN blocks the normal connection failure notification to the source of a failed connection if the failed
connection was sent to a closed port on the server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement best describes the wiki in OS X Lion Server?
A. A series of date-stamped and chronologically ordered entries on a website
B. A collaborative website that can be edited within a web browser
C. A website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts
D. A folder on a website, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains
Answer: B

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NO.5 What token does a client computer present to OS X Lion Server in order to authenticate to a
kerberized service running on the server?
A. A ticket-granting ticket (TGT) obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
B. A service ticket obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. The user's password
D. A client-generated service ticket
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true about Open Directory locales in OS X Lion Server?
A. Locales integrate the Open Directory domain with Active Directory forest names.
B. Locales organize Open Directory servers according to the subnet that they service.
C. Administrators can define locales to allow users to interact with services in the language of their
choice.
D. Locales affect which folders, if any, appear in the Network view on a Mac client computer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How do you create a configuration profile for a group managed on an OS X Lion Server computer
located at server17.pretendco.com?
A. In Workgroup Manager, connect to server17.pretendco.com, select the group, and click Add
Configuration.
B. In Server Tools, open Profile Manager, connect to server17.pretendco.com, select the group in the
Library, and edit the profile.
C. In Server Admin, connect to server17.pretendco.com, select Profile Manager, select Groups, select the
target group, and then click Add (+).
D. In a web browser, go to https://server17.pretendco.com/profilemanager/, select Groups in the sidebar,
select the target group, click the Profile tab, and then click Edit.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which procedure will prevent guest users from seeing a specific shared folder that is hosted on an OS X
Lion Server?
A. Enable the Hidden flag on the folder.
B. Set the folder's permissions for Everyone Else to No Access.
C. Add a period to the beginning of the folder's name.
D. Click the folder, then select Get Info from the File menu, and click the option "Hide from Guest Users."
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can you update the software of an OS X Lion Server computer from a remote admin computer,
using Server app?
A. Enable the Software Update service, and click Start Software Update.
B. Click Alerts in the sidebar, double-click any alert for an available software update, and then click Install.
C. Select the server name under Hardware in the sidebar, click the Updates tab, and then click Install.
D. Select Server Updates from the Tools menu, click Check Now, and then click Install.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which protocol can iCal clients use to access iCal service calendar files on an OS X Lion Server
computer?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Answer: E

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NO.11 You are setting up an OS X Lion Server computer to host NetBoot images. How do you let users on
client computers booted from the NetBoot service retain their personal system settings, such as their
preferred Dock position?
A. In Server Admin, configure the NetBoot service to store its shadow files on an AFP or NFS server.
B. In Server app, set the managed preferences for the user accounts to "Never managed".
C. In Server Admin, enable the Client Data option for the volume on the server that is hosting the NetBoot
images.
D. In Server app, configure the user accounts to use networked home folders.
Answer: D

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NO.12 In OS X Lion Server, the DHCP service ________.
A. distributes IP addresses and associated information to clients
B. translates network addresses
C. authenticates users who access the server remotely
D. maps IP addresses to names
Answer: A

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NO.13 You need to retrieve the latest Lion system update from Apple so you can install it on several
networked iMacs. Which statement describes a valid method of using a single computer to begin this
task?
A. Choose Download Only from the Update menu in Software Update on one computer, and then
distribute the updates to the target iMacs over the network.
B. Identify available updates using Software Update, choose "Go to Apple downloads page" from the
Update menu, use Safari to download the updates from the Apple Support website on one computer, and
then distribute the updates to the target iMacs over the network.
C. Download the updates on one computer, and store them in the computer's /Network/Software Updates/
folder; Software Update will automatically search this folder first when it runs on the target iMacs.
D. Open Software Update and click Receipts.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What protocol does the Mail application in OS X Lion use to send email from a client computer to a mail
server for delivery?
A. SMTP
B. LDAP
C. IMAP
D. POP
E. XMPP
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are TWO ways an administrator can deliver a profile to iOS devices? (Choose 2.)
A. Email the profile as an attachment to the user with instructions to install it on the iOS device.
B. Distribute the profile to users' computers over the network, then tell users to sync their devices to their
computers using iTunes.
C. Connect each iOS device to an admin computer, and copy the .pfm file to the device.
D. Post the profile on the App Store, and tell users to download it.
E. Using Profile Manager, push the profile to an enrolled iOS device.
Answer: A, E

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Code d'Examen: HS330

Nom d'Examen: American College (Fundamentals of Estate Planning test)

Questions et réponses: 400 Q&As

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NO.1 The following are facts concerning a decedent's estate:
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months after death.
Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included in this estate is
correct?
Taxable estate $1,700,000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200,000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50,000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified
charity
100,000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A. $1,700,000
B. $1,750,000
C. $1,850,000
D. $1,900,000
Answer: B

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A. An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is includible at
the date of death value.
B. Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C. Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of death if the
executor so elects.
D. Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of death.
Answer:A

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4. A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to his
death, the father was offered $1,200,000 for his farm because of its possible use as a shopping center.
The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his father's estate at its current use
value. Additional facts are:
1.Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2.Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $8,000.

NO.2 The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Bank is 8 percent.
For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use value for
the farm of
A. $500,000
B. $600,000
C. $700,000
D. $820,000
Answer: B

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5. Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in common?
A. Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of which is
real property.
B. Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother being able to
divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C. Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property used in the
partnership business.
D. Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one of the
brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
Answer: B

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6. Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in a
community-property state is correct?
A. All property owned by the couple is community property.
B. Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state to a
common-law state.
C. Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property.
D. Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A. Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B. It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C. Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D. It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
Answer: B

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8. On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which of the
following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A. The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during lifetime and
at death.
B. The value of Betsy and John's GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at death
rather than during lifetime.
C. The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition gifts for the
grandchildren.
D. Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D

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9.The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy on his
life.
Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3,200
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration
expenses
80,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A. $2,138,000
B. $2,358,000
C. $2,528,000
D. $2,720,000
Answer: C

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10.Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000 Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000 What is the value of
the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A. $ 21,600
B. $ 23,200
C. $ 23,600
D. $200,000
Answer: C

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11. A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists entirely of
probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will receive all estate
income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass equally to their two sons. He
wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal estate taxes as possible. To best
accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of the following estate plans in his will?
A. Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B. Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and place the
remainder in a QTIP trust
C. Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of his
estate in a QTIP trust
D. Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
Answer: C

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12. Among the assets in a decedent's gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left to a
nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes and
expenses. The relevant facts about this
estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral
expenses
25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that the
redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A. 0
B. $ 65,000
C. $225,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C

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13. A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning his
estate are: Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000 Marital deduction 1,200,000 Applicable credit
amount (2005) 555,800 Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000 State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which the
tentative tax to be computed is over $1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is $345,800,
plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over $1,250,000 but not
over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the excess of such amount over
$1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over $2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800
plus 45% of the excess of such amount over $1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax
payable is
A. 0
B. $103,320
C. $123,720
D. $128,280
Answer: B

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14. Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A. Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B. Both come into being by operation of law.
C. Both are monitored by the courts.
D. Both are required to file income tax returns.
Answer: D

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15. A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year: Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40,000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A. $23,000
B. $45,000
C. $52,000
D. $95,000
Answer:A

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16. A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint of
providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best choice of
trustee?
A. The grantor of the trust
B. The grantor's 70-year-old father
C. The grantor's 22-year-old son
D. A bank or trust company
Answer: D

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17. A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter
10,000
What amount must be brought back to the man's estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the calculation of his
federal estate taxes?
A. 0
B. $ 90,000
C. $280,000
D. $320,000
Answer:A

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18. A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his descendants are
as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower's will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his children,
per stirpes,
which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will receive?
A. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C. $75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D. $60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
Answer:A

American College   certification HS330   HS330   HS330 examen
19. Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate planner?
A. Contracts
B. Compatibility
C. Consistency
D. Compensation
Answer: D

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20. A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this
year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift
was made in
1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the applicable
credit amount.
The fair market value of the property at the father's death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3
months after
her father's death for $200,000. She had a gain of
A. 0
B. $130,000
C. $160,000
D. $200,000
Answer:A

American College   certification HS330   HS330   HS330

NO.3 Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A. A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she reaches
the age of 21.
B. Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8 months without
charging a fee.
C. The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that rents for
$3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D. A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years ago.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-105

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private LAN Services)

Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

4A0-105 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/4A0-105.html


NO.1 Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS?
A.Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label switched path)
tunnels
B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F.All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit
Answer: A

certification Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-105   4A0-105 examen

NO.3 Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?
A.9000
B.1514
C.1000
D.0
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is false?
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are
connected
via a bridged LAN
Answer: C

Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-105   certification 4A0-105   certification 4A0-105   4A0-105

NO.5 Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
A.A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service
B.A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain
C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
E.The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP
Answer: C

Alcatel-Lucent examen   4A0-105   4A0-105   4A0-105

NO.6 Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network?
Choose all that apply.
A.MAC learning
B.Packet replication
C.Proxy ARP
D.Packet forwarding
E.Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with that VPLS
Answer: A B D E

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-105   certification 4A0-105

NO.7 The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D.Only (a) and (b) are true
E.All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
A.It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2
B.The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac
address association
C.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1
D.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4
Answer: C

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-105   4A0-105   4A0-105 examen

NO.9 True or False? Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels?
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.10 Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B.oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-106

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private Routed Networks)

Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

4A0-106 est un test de Alcatel-Lucent Certification, donc réussir 4A0-106 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction Alcatel-Lucent. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-106 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test 4A0-106. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?


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NO.1 What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional
Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: BD

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NO.2 When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are
expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between sitesDistributing the customer? routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: BCE

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.3 Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: ABE

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NO.4 Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured
with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for
exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E

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NO.5 In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: ABC

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106 examen   4A0-106 examen   4A0-106 examen

NO.6 What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: ABD

Alcatel-Lucent examen   4A0-106   4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.7 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address
space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.9 Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: AE

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106   4A0-106   certification 4A0-106

NO.10 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

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2013年7月30日星期二

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Code d'Examen: 000-188

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Program Management )

Questions et réponses: 38 Q&As

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NO.1 It is discovered while running Playback 0 that an important but not strictly necessary sub-process was
missed in the analysis. How should the program manager recommend handling the missed sub-process?
A. Redo Playback 0 and include the sub process.
B. Note the sub-process as a user story and save it for the next release.
C. Include the sub-process in Playback 1 without validating with the process owner.
D. Schedule a special iteration and playback to address the sub-process after Playback 3.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The BPM Program Manager, Process Owner, and Lead Developer are collaborating to define the theme
and assign user stories for the next iteration. The team is planning the 7th of 15 iterations in the Release
Plan for Release One. The Program Manager displays a Team Velocity chart showing that the
Development team has shown significant growth in story points accepted from iterations 1 to 4 and has
been leveling off to roughly 200 story points in iterations 5 and 6.
Given there are 9 iterations remaining in the release plan, the Process Owner immediately recognizes
there is room for roughly 1800 story points in the remaining time for Release One. However, the backlog
contains 2400 story points marked as "high" priority and another 1200 story points marked as "medium"
priority. The Process Owner asks to reduce the points assessed to the high priority user stories to bring
the total points down to roughly 1800 so as to make them fit in the remaining time. The Program Manager
agrees.
What is wrong with this scenario.?
A. This is a conversation for a Release Planning meeting and not during Iteration Planning.
B. Team Velocity is fixed and changing the method of estimating story points mid-way through a release
will not increase the scope of work that can be completed.
C. Process Owner forgot to include a risk factor of 1.4 that should be applied to 1800 resulting in roughly
2500 story points (1.4 x 1800 = 2520) remaining in the Release. No action should be taken.
D. Both "high" and "medium" priority stories should be included in the Release Plan meaning all user story
points should be reduced by 50% to get all high/medium priority stories to fit in 1800 points remaining
(2400+1200 = 3600 : 3600/2 = 1800).
Answer: B

IBM   000-188   000-188   000-188

NO.3 The BPM program manager and process owner for a new hire onboarding process project need to
ensure that the solution developed by the team will be accepted and adopted by the target users. To
facilitate this, they decide to:
A. plan additional playbacks for user screens.
B. agree with users to postpone the release until every feature is correct.
C. involve champion SMEs in the discovery and implementation including playbacks.
D. insist on documentation of all user requirements before having the development team begin work.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 00M-530

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Systems Storage Sales Mastery Test )

Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

00M-530 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/00M-530.html


NO.1 A customer needs to replicate data from a mission-critical application in New York to an alternate site in
London. The customer needs an RPO of 10 seconds or less.
Which data replication technology is appropriate for this customer?
A. Global Copy
B. Global Mirror
C. Metro Mirror
D. FlashCopy
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a business benefit of tape virtualization?
A. Synchronous copy to real tape is supported.
B. Resources assigned by each backup serverprovideload balancing.
C. It alleviates virtual tape drive and library constraints.
D. It reduces total cost of ownership by blending disk and tape
Answer: D

IBM   certification 00M-530   00M-530   00M-530

NO.3 IBM s Infrastructure Management Strategy prescribes which tool to manage heterogeneous storage?
A. IBM Director 5.2
B. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
C. IBM DS Storage Manager
D. Web-based System Manager
Answer: B

IBM   certification 00M-530   00M-530   certification 00M-530

NO.4 What is a feature of the DS5000 series disk systems.?
A. SAS connectivity
B. 8 Gb drive side back-end loops
C. maximum of 8 GB data cache
D. DACStore
Answer: A

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NO.5 IBM is an active member of which open standards organization that has the task of solving problems
with managing storage?
A. Storage System Standards Working Group
B. Storage Management Initiative Task Force
C. Mass Storage System Standards Task Force
D. IEEE Storage System Standards Committee
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-221

Nom d'Examen: IBM (AIX 7 Administration )

Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command will
ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

IBM   000-221   certification 000-221   000-221 examen

NO.2 Before changing virtual memory settings, how can an administrator check the valid range of values for
a tuning parameter?
A. Iscfg-T
B. Isattr-R
C. vmtune-l
D. vmo-L
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 000-221   certification 000-221   000-221   000-221 examen   000-221

NO.3 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase /var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

IBM   000-221 examen   000-221 examen

NO.4 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition ¯:.
Answer: A

IBM   000-221 examen   certification 000-221   000-221   certification 000-221   000-221

NO.5 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates.?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal program
load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred firmware can
be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is shutdown and
restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will automatically
shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware contains
major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-221   000-221 examen   000-221   000-221

NO.6 What option will boot an LPAR directly from DVD media, without any user interaction required, when
starting the LPAR from the Hardware Management Console (HMC)?
A. Normal
B. Diagnostic with default boot list
C. System management services
D. Open firmware OK prompt
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-221 examen   000-221 examen   000-221 examen

NO.7 How can an administrator enable the Workload Partitions Manager feature after AIX 7 has been
installed with the default options?
A. Change AIX License using chlicense -I command
B. Change AIX edition using chedition -e command
C. Change WPAR License using chwpar -I command
D. Change WPAR edition using chwpar-e command
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-221   certification 000-221

NO.8 An administrator needs to list/query the security attributes for the WPAR syswpar1. Which command
will do this?
A. Issecattr-W syswpar1
B. Issecconf-w syswpar1
C. Isattr-s syswpar1
D. Iswpar-S syswpar1
Answer: D

IBM   000-221   000-221   000-221

NO.9 New change control procedures dictate that system maintenance windows be shown to each user after
logging into the system using ssh or telnet. Updating which file or files will accomplish this task?
A. The message of the day file
B. The user default attributes file
C. User and admin system alert files
D. The var daily message files
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-221   certification 000-221   000-221 examen

NO.10 An administrator plans to duplicate the active rootvg on a given system to a spare disk that will be
migrated to newer hardware. Which flag on 'alt_disk_copy' must be used to reset user-defined device
configurations to defaults?
A. X
B. R
C. O
D. D
Answer: C

IBM   000-221   certification 000-221   000-221   000-221   000-221

NO.11 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-221 examen   certification 000-221   000-221   000-221

NO.12 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the
administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the network. He
suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the adapter
is using.
Answer: C

IBM   000-221   certification 000-221   certification 000-221

NO.13 AIX has been installed on an LPAR with 32 GB of memory. What should be checked first, before
increasing the paging space beyond the default 512MB?
A. The maximum memory attribute in the LPAR profile.
B. Quantity and size of hosted filesystems.
C. Disk device distribution and utilization.
D. Paging requirements of applications that will be hosted.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-221   certification 000-221   certification 000-221   000-221

NO.14 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the correct
Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the inconsistent fileset
levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

IBM   000-221 examen   000-221   000-221

NO.15 The cfgmgr command appears to be taking an excessive time to complete. The administrator was able
to quit the command and return to the command prompt. The administrator does not have access to the
managing HMC and unable to check for any LED codes.
How else can the cause of the observed delay be determined?
A. Review the latest entry within /var/log/cfgdb.out.
B. Start the syslog daemon before re-issuing the command.
C. Re-issue the command with the W flag.
D. Initiate the ledmon command from a separate session, then re-issue cfgmgr.
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-221   000-221

NO.16 What are key considerations when planning for Live Application Mobility?
A. The WPAR is an Application WPAR and both global environments are at the same AIX level
B. That the WPAR is checkpointable and both global environments are on the same subnet
C. The NFS services are running and applications are stopped
D. The NFS services are running and there is an HMC attached to both managed systems
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-221   000-221   certification 000-221

NO.17 Which AIX command will display the virtual SCSI slot number that is the parent of hdisk0?
A. Isdev
B. Iscfg
C. Isattr
D. Ismap
Answer: B

IBM   000-221   000-221 examen   000-221

NO.18 Which of the following is an AIX 7 Cluster Aware feature?
A. Cluster application load balancing
B. Cluster shared volume groups on the shared disk
C. Cluster IP addresses on the shared resource
D. Cluster configurations on the cluster repository disk
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-221   000-221 examen   000-221 examen

NO.19 Which TWO groups of actions will create a CDROM file system for device cd0 and mount this on /cdfs?
(Select 2)
A. cdutil-s-kcd0/cdfs mount /cdfs
B. Define cd0 mount point as /cdfs in file /etc/cdromd.conf startsrc -s cdromd cdmount cd0
C. Define cd0 mount point as /cdfs in /etc/filesystems as vfs type jfs2 mount /cdfs
D. crfs-vcdrfs-pro-d'cd0'-mVcdfs' mount /cdfs
E. mkfs-v/cdfs/dev/cd0 mount /cdfs
Answer: B,D

certification IBM   000-221 examen   000-221   certification 000-221   000-221

NO.20 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a system with 6
physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 00M-648

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational IT Sales Mastery Test v2 )

Questions et réponses: 81 Q&As

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NO.1 Many organizations depend on web-based software to run their business processes, conduct
transactions and deliver increasingly sophisticated services to customers. What is a key way that Rational
AppScan helps organizations better secure those applications.?
A. It provides a run time monitor of web applications to prevent unwanted intrusions.
B. It enables organizations to embed application security testing throughout the development life cycle to
help increase visibility and control while employing a risk mitigation strategy.
C. It provides authentication and identification services to ensure that only authorized users can access
mission critical applications.
D. It analyzes network traffic to identify trojan horses, malware, etc.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 00M-648   00M-648 examen

NO.2 What is a key differentiator of the Rational Deployment Planning and Automation solution compared to
competitive offerings?
A. A focus on continuous integration deployment automation.
B. Its strategy is to automate logic that the customer has already written.
C. It relies on integrating a mix of Rational and open-source technologies.
D. It is a true broad development-to-operations solution.
Answer: A

IBM   00M-648   00M-648   00M-648

NO.3 Which of these challenges exist most often in Software Development and Delivery?
A. Language, Relational, Geographic
B. Organizational, Cultural, Systemic
C. Environmental, Infrastructure, Educational
D. Geographic, Organizational and Infrastructure
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-573

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Netcool/Impact V6.1 Implementation )

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

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NO.1 Which component of IBM WebSphere is installed with IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
A. WebSphere MQ
B. WebSphere Portal Server
C. WebSphere Process Server
D. Embedded WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-573   certification 000-573   000-573

NO.2 What must occur before a data type can be defined?
A. Data Type service must be started
B. Policy Activator service is activated
C. Data Source definition is configured
D. ObjectServer Event Reader is activated
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-573   certification 000-573   000-573 examen

NO.3 A new Impact Server will be installed using the console mode of the installer application. Which
statement is true?
A. All default ports must be available.
B. The installer will not check if the required ports are available.
C. A starting point of ports can be selected if the default ports are not available.
D. The installer will adapt the required ports if some are tested as in use during the installation.
Answer: C

IBM   000-573 examen   000-573 examen   000-573

NO.4 What must be done to receive an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus event when a policy run raises any
unknown exception?
A. use the action function exceptionnameOand add policy code to insert the event between the brackets
B. use handle exceptionnameO in the policy and add policy code to insert the event between the brackets
C. create an ExceptionHandlerPolicy that inserts the event and define this in the Policytogger
configuration
D. configure the Self-Monitoring service to log exceptions into the ObjectServer defined in the service
configuration
Answer: C

IBM   000-573   000-573 examen   000-573 examen

NO.5 Which step is required to design an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 solution from stakeholder
requirements?
A. Determine if the correct Java version is installed.
B. Create an architecture and a raw functional design of policies.
C. Determine if enough disk space is provided on the installation servers.
D. Interview the operational staff to determine their most efficient way to resolve a problem
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is true about the LDAP DSA?
A. It does not support data saved in UTF-8 format.
B. It does not retrieve information from LDAPV2/V3.
C. It allows IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add, modify, or delete information managed by the LDAP server.
D. It does not allow IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add. modify, or delete information managed by the LDAP
server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which utility edits the installed GUI server deployment and maps the roles to the specified users?
A. roles.[bat|sh]
B. user-roles.[bat|sh]
C. update-impact-roles.[bat|sh]
D. impact-security-roles.[bat|sh]
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-573   000-573 examen   000-573   000-573 examen

NO.8 How is the name of the IBM Tivoli N etc oo I/Imp act Server Instance on the console identified?
A. check the IBM Installer utility litslll.sh to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have been set up
B. check the TIPProfile/logs/server1 directory - the SystemOutlog holds the Impact Service Instance
name
C. use the nci_server command line utility to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have been set
up
D. check the impact/etc directory - all Impact Server Instance-related files use the Instance Name in the
beginning of every file name
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-573   000-573   certification 000-573

NO.9 In which folder are the IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 service logs stored?
A. $NCHOME/logs
B. $IMPACT_HOME/log
C. $IMPACT_HOME/Iogs
D. $IMPACT_HOME/services/logs
Answer: C

IBM   000-573   certification 000-573   000-573   000-573 examen   000-573

NO.10 What are two ways Data Source Adapters are used in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1? (Choose two.)
A. to monitor Netcool/lmpact services
B. to communicate with external data sources
C. to extend the capabilities of Netcool/lmpact
D. to apply product fixes to the Netcool/lmpact Server
E. to start the policy logging service in Netcool/lmpact
Answer: B,C

IBM   certification 000-573   000-573 examen   000-573

NO.11 Which command line function should be executed prior to applying a product fix or upgrading the IBM
Tivoli Netcool/lmpact Server as best practice.?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_export
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-573   certification 000-573   000-573

NO.12 Which tool will start a policy from the command line?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_import
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-573   certification 000-573

NO.13 In order for IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 to start using the ObjectServer for authentication, the server
must be configured so that it can map the roles that the application exposes to groups and/or users
managed in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus. Which file must be edited for this purpose?
A. omnibus.conf
B. omnibususers
C. guiserver.setting
D. objectserver.conf
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-573   000-573   000-573 examen

NO.14 On a server with only command line access, the server in an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact cluster is
identified as acting as a primary server by using which command line utility?
A. nci_server
B. nci_trigger
C. nci_get_primary
D. nci_findendpoint
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-573   000-573 examen   000-573 examen

NO.15 Given only command line access, where is it verified that a newly started IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact
Server instance is registering itself as a slave or primary in a cluster?
A. in the server.log file
B. in the netcool.log file
C. in the systemOut.log file
D. using the nci_server utility
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-573   000-573   000-573   000-573

NO.16 What is the purpose of a project in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
A. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the global repository.
B. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the Impact repository.
C. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored across cluster members.
D. It allows for creating supersets of the elements stored in the global repository.
Answer: A

IBM   000-573   certification 000-573   000-573

NO.17 Which three IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact roles in Tivoli Integrated Portal can be used to control users
access to navigation pages in the GUI and to permit users to unlock their own files?
A. impactSuperUser. impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
B. impactAdminUser, impactReadWriteUser, and impactOpViewUser
C. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
D. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactReadOnlyUser
Answer: C

IBM   000-573 examen   000-573 examen

NO.18 Which functional step should be completed when designing an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1
solution?
A. write an enrichment policy
B. develop Netcool/lmpact startup scripts
C. test high availability and fail-over scenarios
D. determine methods of achieving customer requirements
Answer: D

IBM   000-573 examen   certification 000-573   000-573 examen   000-573 examen   000-573

NO.19 An IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 system is configured to perform event enrichment by retrieving
ObjectServer events which have an empty Location field. Which Service Log can be used to verify that
Netcool/lmpact is selecting events from the ObjectServer based upon that condition?
A. the PolicyLogger service
B. the PolicyActivator service
C. the OMNIbusEventReader service
D. the OMNIbusEventListener service
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-573   000-573   certification 000-573

NO.20 What is the minimum memory requirement for installing a Tivoli Integrated Portal profile and an IBM
Tivoli Netcool/lrnpact profile running on the same physical machine?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

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