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Code d'Examen: C2020-605
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 End users report data on a weekly basis. They want to be able to work with as many weeks as possible
in a single fiscal year. When configuring the application, what is the maximum number of weeks that an
administrator can specify for a year?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to the
journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there is no
amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to convert the
local amount for the current year?
A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the diagrams below, a journal entry for Cash (account B100000, an asset account in the balance
sheet) and External Reserves (account R100_000, a cost account in the income statement) is recorded in
the amount of 100. The balance sheet in the Journals Across report does not balance anymore because
Total Assets (account B450000) has a value of 1200 and Total Liabilities and Equity (account B750000)
has a value of 1100. What caused the difference between the Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Equity
accounts?
A. The company journal type, US GAAP, should credit account B711000 for 100.
B. Balance Sheet for Net Income in the general configuration should be B711000.
C. In the general configuration, no value has been specified in the Other Difference for Automatic
Journals field
D. Net Income (Non-integrated) in the general configuration should be B711000.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory
fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base extensions
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Movement journals
Answer: C

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NO.6 The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use
Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?
A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.
Answer: C

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NO.8 How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the
administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?
A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

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NO.11 Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can
reconcile and differences
Answer: B

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NO.12 The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions
will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's rules.?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file
Answer: A

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NO.14 End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What
must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C

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NO.15 A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to
improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2060-220
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.3 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.9 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

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NO.10 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

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NO.12 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

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NO.13 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.14 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

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NO.16 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

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NO.18 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

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NO.20 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2040-916
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Forms 4 - Form Design and Development)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 Charlie has been tasked with creating a dropdown menu whose choices are dependent on the selection
of another dropdown on the form.He has created the following XPath query in the dropdown's nodeset:
What does the function current() do?
A.Returns the current element.
B.Returns the id of the current node.
C.Returns the context back to the "Generated" instance so that the selected_category element is
referenced.
D.Returns the context back to the "frozenTreatsData" instance so that the selected_category element is
referenced.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Complete the following statement.The artifact created in the IBM Forms Designer is:
A.A dynamic PDF document.
B.An XML document that conforms to the XFDL schema.
C.An XML document with embedded Javascript if HTML extensions were used.
D.An XML document or an HTML document depending on the rendering mode that was defined.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Jane is given an XML schema by her company's IT department, and is asked to build an IBM Form that
captures data according to that schema.How can Jane build the form?
A.IBM Forms does not support schemas, so this is not possible.
B.Using IBM Forms Designer, Jane can drag and drop the schema onto her form page.The Designer
automatically creates the appropriate UIitems according to what was specified in the schema.
C.Using IBM Forms Designer, Jane embeds the schema into her form, creates an instance of that
schema, then drags and drops from theinstance onto the form.The Designer then creates the appropriate
UI items according to what was specified in the schema.
D.Jane has to use another tool to create an XML instance of the schema.She adds the XML instance to
her form using IBM Forms Designer, thendrags and drops from the instance onto the form.The Designer
then creates the appropriate UI items according to what was specified in theschema.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which document repository does IBM Forms Server with Workflow integrate with out-of-the-box?
A.IBM DB2 Content Manager
B.IBM Web Content Manager
C.IBM Lotus Quickr
D.FileNet Content Manager
Answer: D

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NO.5 Jane is trying to relatively align item B to be below item A, but she notices that this option is not
available.Why can't she use the relative positioning option?
A.She cannot use relative positioning because Item B precedes Item A in build order.
B.She cannot use relative positioning because Item A precedes Item B in build order.
C.She cannot use relative positioning because Item A and Item B have the same build order.
D.She cannot use relative positioning because Item A and item B have the same build priority.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Mark is in the Properties window for a field.He wants to select a value for the "texttype" property.Which
of the following is a valid selection?
A.xml/xforms
B.xml/xfdl
C.text/html
D.text/rtf
Answer: D

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NO.7 There are many ways to use data from an external database in a workflow to pre-populate a form (on
form load).Each of the following is true, EXCEPT which one?
A.Build a SQL statement using the included point-and-click SQL builder tool in the Workflow Designer.
B.Create a setthat defines database access parameters.Once done, the data set outputs can be mapped
to the appropriate fields onCreate a setthat defines database access parameters.Once done, the data set
outputs can be mapped to the appropriate fields onthe form.
C.Enter a SQL statement by selecting theEnter SQL Manuallybutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.Enter
a SQL statement by selectingEnter SQL Manuallybutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.
D.Import a .SQL file by selecting theImport SQL Filebutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.Import a .SQL
file by selecting theImport SQL Filebutton in the Workflow Designer Tool.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How are the build order and tab order related?
A.The tab order is always the same as the build order.
B.The build order defines the default tab order.
C.They are not related.
D.The tab order is never the same as the build order.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is a valid XPath query using an axis?
A.instance('widgets')/widget[parent:widget != 'Gadget']
B.instance('entries')/entry[not(author = preceding-sibling::entry/author)]
C.instance('people')/person[position() > 5 and position() < 15]
D.concat(../name, ' ', ../desc, ' ', )
Answer: B

IBM examen   C2040-916 examen   C2040-916   C2040-916

NO.10 In order to use Relative Positioning to position object B below object A, which of the following MUST
be true?
A.Object A and Object B must either both be XFDL items, or both be XForms items.
B.Object B is inside the same xforms:pane as Object A.
C.Object B appears further down the page (not directly below) than Object A.
D.Object B appears below Object A in the Form's build order.
Answer: D

IBM   C2040-916   C2040-916   C2040-916

NO.11 Which XForms item is used to define a table?
A.xforms:group
B.xforms:table
C.xforms:repeat
D.xforms:select
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following components must be installed when using IBM Forms with Workflow?
A.IBM Forms Server
B.Tivoli Access Manager
C.Lotus Quickr
D.WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

IBM examen   C2040-916   C2040-916

NO.13 All of the following are valid methods of using a schema with IBM Forms, EXCEPT which one?
A.Embed schema directly in an XForms instance.
B.Reference external schema on local file system.
C.Embed schema directly in an XForms model.
D.Reference external schema within the Viewer's schema directory.
E.Reference external schema on the internet.
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2040-916   certification C2040-916   C2040-916 examen   C2040-916

NO.14 Which of the following statements regarding XML is TRUE?
A.All XML elements must be properly closed.
B.XML documents must have a DTD (Document Type Definition) file.
C.All XML elements must be lower case.
D.XML tags are not case sensitive.
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2040-916   certification C2040-916

NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a valid XFDL data type?
A.currency
B.integer
C.float
D.negativeInteger
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A4040-332
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 The administrator has written a script "correct_problem.sh" that needs to be run if the
"release_vg_fs" event does not complete successfully.
What should be done to ensure the correct_problem.sh is called a maximum of 3 times if the event
failed?
A. Include a post event of correct_problem.sh and a retry counter of 3
B. Include a custom event of correct_problem.sh and a restart limit of 3
C. Include a retry command of correct_problem.sh and an event counter of 3
D. Include a recovery command of correct_problem.sh and a recovery counter of 3
Answer: D

IBM   A4040-332   A4040-332 examen   A4040-332 examen

NO.2 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the
HMC for a standby node in that cluster:
How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application runs with the minimum
hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: C

IBM   certification A4040-332   A4040-332   A4040-332   A4040-332 examen   A4040-332 examen

NO.3 An administrator is configuring a4-node cluster to host 3 instances of their production
application in an N+1 fallover design. Each instance will be in a separate resource group, and all 4
nodes will be participating nodes in each resource group.
Under normal circumstances each node only hosts one instance of the application. Whichever are
the first three nodes to join the cluster become production, and the fourth node will be the standby.
How must the resource group startup policy be configured to accomplish this?
A. Online On Home Node Only
B. Online On All Available Nodes
C. Online On First Available Node
D. Online Using Node Distribution Policy
Answer: D

certification IBM   A4040-332   A4040-332   certification A4040-332   certification A4040-332   A4040-332

NO.4 What are the two types of application monitors that can be created?
A. Process Monitors and Custom Monitors
B. Predefined Monitors and Custom Monitors
C. System Monitors and User Defined Monitors
D. Process Monitors and User Defined Monitors
Answer: A

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NO.5 Based on the following output from a PowerHA 7 cluster node, what else can be done to
provide higher availability?
A. Enable fast failure detection.
B. Mirror rootvg across local disk.
C. Mirror caavg_private across shared disk.
D. Change non mirrored volume group disks to hot spare using the chpv command
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification A4040-332   A4040-332   A4040-332

NO.6 A PowerHA 6 cluster has missed too many heartbeats during a large disk write operation, and
has triggered the deadman switch. Which tunable can help ensure that HA Cluster Manager
continues to run?
A. I/O Pacing and syncd frequency
B. I/O Pacing and asynchronous I/O
C. Syncd frequency and asynchronous I/O
D. Asynchronous I/O and disk queue_depth
Answer: A

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NO.7 What will allow an administrator to mirror shared volume groups between two sites that are
only linked by TCP/IP?
A. GLVM Disk
B. MetroMirror Disk
C. PowerHA 7 Network Share Disk
D. Cluster Aware AIX (CAA) Share Disk
Answer: A

certification IBM   certification A4040-332   A4040-332   certification A4040-332

NO.8 A customer has completed installing PowerHA 7 filesets. Which task, or tasks, should be
completed next?
A. Configure cluster topology
B. Configure cluster resources
C. Reboot each PowerHA cluster node
D. Verify and synchronize the cluster
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: M2070-640
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Enterprise Content Management Sales Mastery Test v2)
Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

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NO.1 How does Production Imaging Edition (PIE) compare against competing solutions from
Kofax,
Documentum, Open Text, etc?
A. PIE is the only complete solution, comprising capture, content management, workflow, and
viewing /
annotation / redaction
B. PIE is the only solution sold as one part number
C. PIE is the only solution that can be extended to Case Management, Lifecycle Governance,
Content
Analytics, and more
D. All of the above
Answer: A

IBM   M2070-640   M2070-640   M2070-640   M2070-640

NO.2 What is the best description for defensible disposal?
A. IT is able to track disposed information
B. Legal has visibility into what information IT has disposed of
C. IT can dispose of information in compliance with preservation and retention policy
D. RIM disposes of paper records held in storage for more than 10 years
Answer: C

IBM   M2070-640   certification M2070-640   certification M2070-640   M2070-640 examen   M2070-640

NO.3 Pre-configured Datacap Capture solutions are available for the following applications:
A. Import/export and accounts payable
B. Medical claims and student survey processing
C. Accounts payable and medical claims
D. Accounts payable and human resources
Answer: C

IBM   M2070-640   M2070-640 examen

NO.4 The Information Governance Reference Model provides a responsible model for
stakeholders for
efficient information governance and management.
Which of the stated Information Governance steps are MOST important?
A. Hold, Discover
B. Retain, Archive, Dispose
C. Store, Secure
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

IBM   M2070-640 examen   M2070-640

NO.5 Solutions that enable precise holds and IT transparency, targeted collection, and
internal culling, review
and assessment, can reduce costs by the following ways EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding unnecessary data accumulation and collection with confidence
B. Improving case strategy, reduce collected volume and enterprise burden
C. Facilitating production and presentation of evidence to courts
D. Reducing high processing and outside review costs
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 98-349
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Windows Operating System Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 155 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are the various types of MMC User modes? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. User Mode (Limited Access, Multiple Window)
B. User Mode (Full Access)
C. User Mode (Single Window)
D. User Mode (Limited Access, Single Window)
Answer: B, A, and D

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NO.2 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A ________________ is a unique combination of numbers
and letters. This combination is used during Microsoft software installation to "unlock" or open the
product.
A. product key
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   98-349   98-349 examen

NO.3 You work as a network administrator for www.company.com Inc. You want to run the Windows 7
operating system on the computers of the organization.
Which of the following are basic system requirements for Windows 7? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. 16 GB available hard disk space (32-bit) or 20 GB (64-bit)
B. 1 gigabyte (GB) RAM (32-bit) or 2 GB RAM (64-bit)
C. 6 GB available hard disk space (32-bit) or 20 GB (64-bit)
D. 1 gigahertz (GHz) or faster 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) processor
Answer: D, B, and A

certification Microsoft   certification 98-349   98-349 examen   98-349   98-349

NO.4 Which of the following are general options in Media Center to adjust Media Center settings? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Screen Orientation
B. Visual And Sound Effects
C. Windows Media Center Setup
D. Startup And Windows Behavior
Answer: D, B, and C

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NO.5 Which of the following are the basic elements of the Windows Media Player interface? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. List pane
B. Navigation pane
C. Address bar
D. Menu bar
Answer: C, B, and A

certification Microsoft   98-349   certification 98-349   98-349 examen   certification 98-349

NO.6 Choose and reorder the correct steps to get more gadgets.
Answer:

NO.7 Which of the following options is used to virtualize the desktop environment delivering enterprise-class
control, and to increase the manageability?
A. VDI
B. NTFS
C. Windows Anytime Upgrade
D. MED-V
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   98-349   98-349 examen   certification 98-349

NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for www.company.com Inc. You have installed the Windows 7
operating system on your computer. You are using the Internet printing process to print your documents.
Which protocol is used by the computer to send print jobs in Internet printing?
A. SCP
B. SAP
C. HTTP
D. SDP
Answer: C

Microsoft   certification 98-349   98-349   98-349   98-349 examen

NO.9 Rick works as a security administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company has two branch
offices. Both the branch offices have laptops running Windows 7 Professional and external mobile drives
for data storage and backups. Rick wants to secure the laptops with BitLocker.
What will Rick do to accomplish the task?
A. Disable public folder access on the laptops.
B. Upgrade the laptops to Windows 7 Enterprise or Windows 7 Ultimate.
C. Purchase Bit Locker because www.company.com does not have licensing for it .
D. Enable public folder access on the laptops.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.___________________helps a user access a computer
running Windows from another computer running Windows that is connected to the same network or to
the Internet.
A. helps
Answer: A

Microsoft   certification 98-349   98-349 examen

NO.11 Which of the following steps will you take to configure automatic updates? Each correct answer
represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Under Windows Update, click "Turn automatic updating on or off". The Change Settings window opens.
B. Open the Control Panel and click Add or Remove Program.
C. Open the Control Panel and click System and Security. (If the Control Panel is not in Category view,
click Windows Update, and then click Change settings.)
D. Configure the update options as needed, and click OK.
Answer: C, A, and D

certification Microsoft   98-349   certification 98-349

NO.12 Which of the following network locations is controlled by the network administrator and cannot be
selected or changed?
A. Domain network
B. Home network
C. Work network
D. Public network
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   98-349   98-349   98-349

NO.13 Choose and reorder the correct steps to run Task Scheduler from the Command Line.
Answer:

NO.14 Choose and reorder the correct steps to open Device Manager by using the Windows interface.
Answer:

NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The computers on the network run
Windows 7. You want to run the applications that run only on Windows XP.
Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish the task.?
A. Set two PCs at each desk and teller window configured with a keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) switch.
One PC would run Windows 7 and the supported applications, and the other would run Windows XP and
the older applications.
B. Set a centralized PC running Windows XP with all necessary applications installed. Each user can sign
up to use the machine to complete their work.
C. Configure each Windows 7 PC with Windows XP Mode and install the older applications in XP Mode.
D. Use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to perform multiple installations simultaneously.
Answer: C

Microsoft   certification 98-349   certification 98-349

NO.16 Joseph works as a Desktop Support Technician for www.company.com Inc. As part of his
responsibilities, he has to monitor the performance of computers on a regular basis. He runs Windows
Defender on a computer and receives the following warning message:
"Windows Defender Definitions haven't been updated".
He wants to resolve this issue and ensure that this message is not displayed. For this, he has to update
Windows Defender definition files.
What will he do to update the files?
A. Repair the Microsoft Location Finder program.
B. Download and install the latest Windows Defender application from the Microsoft website.
C. Download and install the appropriate files from the Microsoft website.
D. Restart the Windows Defender.
Answer: C

Microsoft   98-349   certification 98-349

NO.17 Fill in the blanks with the appropriate terms. The provides commands specific to the current selection.
It also provides an alternative to the action pane. The __________________ allows a user to choose
among alternative ways of presenting information.
A. Action menu
Answer: A

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NO.18 You work as a Network Administrator for www.company.com Inc. You want to use the cloud computing
service over your organization.
Which of the following is the biggest security control loss with cloud computing?
A. Physical control loss over data
B. Logical control loss over data
C. Backup control loss over data
D. Administrative access loss to data
Answer: A

Microsoft   98-349 examen   98-349

NO.19 Choose and reorder the steps to set up Windows 7 for Bluetooth.
Answer:

NO.20 Rick has a laptop that runs Windows 7 Home Premium. He wants to upgrade it to another edition of
Windows 7. He decides to use Windows Anytime Upgrade. To which of the following editions can he
upgrade? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Starter
B. Home Basic
C. Professional
D. Ultimate
Answer: D and C

Microsoft   98-349   certification 98-349

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Microsoft meilleur examen 70-323, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 70-323
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Administering Office 365)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company uses Office 365. You need to prevent users from initiating remote wipes of mobile
devices by using the Office 365 portal.
What should you modify?
A. the Outlook Web App mailbox policy
B. the Exchange ActiveSync device policy
C. the default role assignment policy
D. the Exchange ActiveSync Access settings
Answer: B

Microsoft examen   70-323 examen   70-323 examen

NO.2 Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to create a group. The group must
have the following characteristics:
Group properties are synchronized automatically.
Group members have the ability to control which users can send email messages to the group.
What should you do?
A. Create a distribution group and configure the Mail Flow Settings.
B. Create a dynamic distribution group.
C. Create a new role group.
D. Create a distribution group and configure the Membership Approval settings.
Answer: A

Microsoft   70-323 examen   70-323   certification 70-323   70-323   70-323 examen

NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are implementing a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You discover that users who have migrated to
Office 365 cannot view the free/busy information of users who are hosted on the Microsoft Exchange
Server on-premises environment. The Exchange on-premises users can view the free/busy information of
all users. You need to ensure that the users who have Office 365 mailboxes can view the free/busy
information of users who have Exchange on premises mailboxes.
Which node should you modify from the Exchange Management Console? To answer, select the
appropriate node in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.4 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several
retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You
install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags
are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need
to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has a main office and a branch office. Both offices are directly connected to the Internet.
The branch office connection to the Internet has limited bandwidth. The company deploys Microsoft Lync
Online. You need to ensure that users in the branch office can only use instant messaging (IM) while
using Lync Online. The users must be prevented from connecting to audio or video conferences.
What should you do.?
A. On the firewall at the branch office, block all of the outbound traffic on port 5061.
B. From the Office 365 portal, modify the user properties of each user in the branch office.
C. From the Office 365 portal, configure the license settings of each user in the branch office.
D. Deploy only the Lync 2010 Attendee client to all of the users in the branch office.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You need to add the label "External" to the subject line of
each email message received by your organization from an external sender. What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Control Panel, add a MailTip.
B. From the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center, set the footer for outbound email.
C. Run the Enable-InboxRule cmdlet.
D. From the Exchange Control Panel, run the New Rule wizard.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your company has a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises. The company
uses Microsoft Lync Online. You need to open ports on the network firewall to enable all of the features of
Lync Online.
Which port or ports should you open? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that
apply.)
A. inbound TCP 443
B. outbound TCP 5061
C. outbound UDP 3478
D. outbound TCP 443
E. outbound UDP 50000 to outbound UDP 59999
F. inbound TCP 8080
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The company updates the email security policy to include
the following requirements:
All email messages older than two years must be deleted automatically unless a user chooses to retain
the message for a longer period.
All email messages sent to and from a distribution group named Legal must be stored in a single
mailbox for five years.
All email messages sent to the Internet from the company must contain a disclaimer.
You need to configure Office 365 to meet the security policy requirements.
Which features should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate feature to the correct requirement
m the answer area.
Answer:

NO.9 HOTSPOT
You are planning a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You configure all email sent to the company from the
Internet to be sent to Office 365. You need to ensure that all of the email sent to recipients hosted on the
Microsoft Exchange Server on-premises environment is routed to the internal network.
What should you modify from the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center? To answer, select
the appropriate option in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.10 Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for
professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox.
What should you do first?
A. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
B. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
C. Modify the default retention policy.
D. Create a service request.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 organization. Users access their mailbox by
using RPC over HTTP and Exchange ActiveSync. You purchase an Office 365 subscription. From the
Office 365 portal, you create and verify the accepted domain of the company. From the Exchange Control
Panel, you attempt to migrate all of the mailboxes to Microsoft Exchange Online and you receive an error
message indicating that the remote server is unavailable. You need to identify what prevents the
mailboxes from migrating.
Which tool should you use?
A. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
B. the Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
C. the Office 365 Deployment Readiness Tool
D. the Microsoft Online Services Directory Synchronization Configuration Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. A user named User1 has a mailbox. You need to
ensure that all of the email messages sent and received by User1 are accessible to the audit department
for 60 days, even if User1 permanently deletes the messages. What should you do?
A. Run the Set-MailboxDatabase cmdlet and specify the deleteditemretention parameter.
B. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the litigationholdenabled parameter.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the singleitemrecoveryenabled parameter.
D. Run the Set-MailboxDatabase cmdlet and specify the eventhistoryretentionperiod parameter.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are the administrator for a company named Tailspin Toys. The company uses the tailspintoys.com
SMTP domain. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. From the Internet, customers send warranty
questions to Tailspin Toys by sending an email message to a shared mailbox named Warranty. The
Warranty mailbox has the warranty@tailspintoys.com SMTP address. The service manager reports that
many email orders sent to warranty@tailspintoys.com are identified as spam. You need to ensure that all
of the messages sent by the customers arrive in the Warranty mailbox. What should you do?
A. From the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center, enable Directory-Based Edge Blocking.
B. From the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center, create a new policy rule.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the New TransportRule cmdlet and specify the -
exceptifheadercontainswords parameter.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ContentFilterConfig cmdlet and specify the -
bypassedrecipients parameter.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to verify whether free/busy
information sharing with external users is configured.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Test-OutlookConnectivity
B. Test-FederationTrust
C. Get-OrganizationRelationship
D. Get-MSOLDomainFederationSettings
Answer: C

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
You are the administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has a subscription to Office 365
for midsize business and enterprises and has 200 Microsoft Lync Online users. Contoso works with a
partner company named Fabrikam, Inc. All users at Fabrikam use Windows live. You need to implement
desktop sharing between all of the Contoso users and all of the Fabrikam users, except for the users in
the Contoso finance department. The Contoso users must be prevented from using Lync Online to
communicate with any other external users. What should you do? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:

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