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Code d'Examen: 030-333
Nom d'Examen: ACSM (ACSM Exercise Specialist Exam)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 What common medication taken by clients with end-stage renal disease requires careful
management for those undergoing hemodialysis?
A. Antihypertensive medication.
B. Lithium.
C. Cholestyramine.
D. Cromolyn sodium.
Answer: A

ACSM examen   030-333   030-333   030-333   030-333 examen

NO.2 .Which of the following is an appropriate exercise for clients with diabetes and loss of protective
sention in the extremities?
A. Prolonged walking.
B. Jogging.
C. Step-class exercise.
D. Swimming.
Answer: D

ACSM   certification 030-333   030-333   030-333   030-333

NO.3 .Symptoms of claudication include
A. Cramping, burning, and tightness in the calf muscle, usually triggered by activity and relieved
with rest.
B. Acute, sharp pain in the foot on palpation at rest.
C. Crepitus in the knee during cycling.
D. Pitting ankle edema at a rating of 3 +
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333 examen   030-333 examen   030-333 examen

NO.4 .A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.
B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the samesubmaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of BP.
Answer: A

ACSM examen   030-333 examen   certification 030-333   certification 030-333   030-333

NO.5 .Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limitingchronicdisease.
B. Clients withcomorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.
D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
Answer: C

ACSM   030-333   030-333   030-333   certification 030-333

NO.6 .In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler's stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus checks her fasting morning glucose level on her whole-blood
glucose meter (fingerstick method), and the result of 253 mgldL (14 mmol/L). A urine test is
positive for ketones before her exercise session. What action should you take?
A. Allow her to exercise as long as her glucose is not greater than 300mgldL (17 mmol/L).
B. Not allow her to exercise this session, and notify her physician of the findings.
C. Give her an extra carbohydrate snack, and wait 5 minutes before beginning exercise.
D. Readjust her insulin regimen for the remainder of the day to compensate for the high morning
glucose level.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333 examen   certification 030-333

NO.8 .Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.
B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. IncreasedROM.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333   030-333   030-333 examen   certification 030-333

NO.9 .Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may bechronotropically (HR) competent with exercise but require
longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the initial exercise portion of their session.
B. Persons who arechronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not exercise at
low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and need not
be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycleergometer because of the
location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .Treatment for claudication during exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Daily exercise sessions.
B. Intensity of activity to maximal tolerable pain, with intermittent rest periods.
C. Cardiorespiratory building activities that are nonweight bearing if the plan is to work on longer
duration and higher intensity to elicit a cardiorespiratory training effect.
D. Stopping activity at the onset ofclaudication discomfort to avoid further vascular damage from
ischemia.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .Initial training sessions for a person with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease most likely
would NOT include
A. Continuous cycling activity at 70% of Vo2 max for 30 minutes.
B. Use ofdyspnea scales, RPE scales, and pursed-lip breathing instruction.
C. Intermittent bouts of activity on a variety of modalities (exercise followed by short rest).
D. Encouraging the client to achievean intensity either at or above the anaerobic threshold.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .A client taking a calcium-channel blocker most likely will exhibit which of the following responses
during exercise?
A. Hypertensive response.
B. Increased ischemia.
C. Improvedanginal thresholds.
D. Severe hypotension.
Answer: C

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NO.13 .Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Answer: B

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NO.14 .The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy individuals
should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333   030-333

NO.15 .Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.
B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Answer: C

ACSM   030-333 examen   certification 030-333

NO.16 .Special precautions for clients with hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding muscle strengthening exercises that involve low resistance.
B. Avoiding activities that involve theValsalva maneuver.
C. Monitoring a client who is taking diuretics for arrhythmias.
D. Avoiding exercise if resting systolic BP is greater than 200 mm Hg or diastolic BP is greater
than 115 mm Hg.
Answer: A

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NO.17 .According to the most recent National Institutes of Health's Clinical Guidelines for the
Identification, Evaluation, and Treatment of Overweight and Obesity in Adults, recommendations
for practical clinical assessment include
A. Determining total body fat through the BMI to assess obesity.
B. Determining the degree of abdominal fat and health risk through waist circumference.
C. Using the waist-to-hip ratio as the only definition of obesity and lean muscle mass.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

ACSM   030-333 examen   certification 030-333   030-333 examen   030-333

NO.18 .A client with angina exhibits symptoms and a 1mm, down-sloping ST- segment depression at a
HR of 129 bpm on his exercise test. His peak exercise target HR should be set at
A. 128bpm.
B. 109 to 119bpm.
C. 129bpm.
D. 125 to 128bpm.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333 examen   030-333 examen   030-333   030-333   certification 030-333

NO.19 .During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiacafterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75
bpm would be equal to
A. 195bpm.
B. 166bpm.
C. 177bpm.
D. 102bpm.
Answer: C

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NO.21 .A 62-year-old, obese factory worker complains of pain in his right shoulder on arm abduction; on
evaluation, decreased ROM and strength are noted. You also notice that he is beginning to use
accessory muscles to substitute movements and to compensate. These symptoms may indicate
A. A referred pain from a herniated lumbar disk.
B. Rotator cuff strain or impingement.
C. angina.
D. Advanced stages of multiple sclerosis.
Answer: B

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NO.22 .Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client
with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations related to this condition at
home?
A. Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.
B. Note signs and symptoms (e.g.,dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report
them to a physician.
C. Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an
irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

ACSM examen   certification 030-333   030-333 examen   030-333   030-333

NO.23 .Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment activity for inpatient rehabilitation of a
client on the second day after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Limit activities as tolerated to the development of self-care activities, ROM for extremities, and
low-resistance activities.
B. Limit upper body activities to biceps curls, horizontal arm adduction, and overhead press using
5-pound weights while sitting on the side of the bed.
C. Progress all activities performed from supine to sitting to standing.
D. Measure vital signs, symptoms, RPE, fatigue, and skin color and perform electrocardiography
before, during, and after treatments to assess activity tolerance.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333   030-333

NO.24 .Controlling pool water temperature (83-88¡ãF), avoiding jarring and weigh- bearing activities, and
avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special considerations for exercise in
A. Clients afteratherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
Answer: D

ACSM   030-333 examen   030-333 examen

NO.25 .Which of the following situations indicates progression to independent and unsupervised exercise
for a client after CABG surgery in an outpatient program?
A. The client exhibits mild cardiac symptoms of angina, occurring intermittently during exercise
and sometimes at home while reading.
B. The client has a functional capacity of greater than 8 MET with hemodynamic responses
appropriate to this level of exercise.
C. The client is noncompliant with smoking cessation and weight loss intervention programs.
D. The client is unable to palpate HR, deliver RPEs, or maintain steady workload intensity during
activity.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333 examen   certification 030-333

NO.26 .All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333   030-333

NO.27 .The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on -blocking medication would generally
be
A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 - age) X 0.85.
Answer: A

ACSM   030-333   030-333   030-333   certification 030-333

NO.28 .Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.
B. Peripheralvasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
Answer: C

ACSM examen   030-333   030-333   030-333   030-333   certification 030-333

NO.29 Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as compared with
warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Answer: D

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NO.30 .All of the following are special considerations inprescribing exercise for the client with arthritis
EXCEPT
A. The possible need to splint painful jointsforprotection.
B. Periods of acute inflammation result in decreased pain and joint stiffness.
C. The possibility of gait abnormalities as compensation for pain or stiffness.
D. The need to avoid exercise of warm,swollenjoints.
Answer: B

ACSM   030-333   030-333

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Questions et réponses: 232 Q&As

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NO.1 You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating Procedures of the
Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognised and effective channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co-ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying recurring
Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with technical
teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast resolution
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk's users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request when
speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B

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NO.14 If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.16 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource management
is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented, regularly
reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise everyones profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much you
wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help you to
succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C

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NO.22 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-302   SD0-302   SD0-302   SD0-302

NO.23 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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NO.24 The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organisation, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organisation in meeting its team
objectives
B. Familiarise yourself with the goals and objectives of other organisations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organisations and within the support industry and your communities
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A

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NO.27 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
Answer: B

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NO.29 Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organisations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

SDI   SD0-302   SD0-302

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Code d'Examen: BCP-620
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution in A Microsoft Exchange Environment)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the scenario, which BlackBerry Enterprise Server component should be installed in New York to
allow for management of the BlackBerry solution? (Choose one)
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Alert Service
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Policy Service
E. BlackBerry Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 The company has exceeded its planned growth for BlackBerry device users and expects to have 1400
additional users next year in New York. What can be done to accommodate this growth on the current
New York BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. Upgrade the existing BlackBerry Enterprise Server to a 64 bit operating system
B. Install a standby BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. Install another BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Install a remote MDS-CS service to handle Sales Data requests
Answer: C

BlackBerry   BCP-620   BCP-620

NO.3 Nextair Corporation plans to keep running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 in
Chicago and install version 5.0 in Los Angeles. They plan on performing a phased migration between the
two sites. Both BlackBerry Enterprise Server instances will share an SQL database.
What must be considered for this upgrade? (Choose one)
A. It requires an additional SRP
B. All users on BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 are disabled until migrated
C. Each BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance will have its own BlackBerry Domain
D. All BlackBerry device users are migrated at the same time
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given the scenario that VIP users require access to internal applications daily, you have decided to
configure the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service for high availability. What is the minimum number of
BlackBerry MDS Connection Service instances you need to install? (Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

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NO.5 Nextair Corporation has determined that the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using a
new SQL database. What is the primary advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. The SQL database can be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The SQL database can be hosted on two separate Microsoft SQL Servers
C. BlackBerry device users are automatically migrated to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version
5.0 during the installation
D. In an emergency, it is easier to roll back to the previous version
Answer: D

BlackBerry examen   BCP-620   BCP-620

NO.6 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

BlackBerry examen   BCP-620   BCP-620

NO.7 What can be deployed to reduce the financial cost of the BlackBerry solution in each office location
when the BlackBerry device users are traveling around the campus? (Choose one)
A. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
B. A WLAN configuration set
C. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. A remote BlackBerry Router
Answer: B

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NO.8 Since the sales application is mission-critical, what can be done to ensure its content is always
delivered to the BlackBerry device users? (Choose one)
A. Configure a secondary pool of BlackBerry MDS Connection Services
B. Configure one primary pool of BlackBerry MDS Connection Services
C. Put the MDS Integration Service Database in a separate server
D. Create a pool of BlackBerry MDS Integration Services
Answer: B

BlackBerry examen   BCP-620   BCP-620

NO.9 Given the scenario, what is the proper role to assign the head administrator in the New York office?
(Choose one)
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Security Administrator
C. Monitoring System Administrator
D. Senior Helpdesk Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Nextair Corporation plans to keep running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 in New
York and install version 5.0 in Toronto. They plan on performing a phased migration between the two sites.
Both BlackBerry Enterprise Server instances will use their own Microsoft SQL Server hosted in their
respective location. What is an advantage of this upgrade? (Choose one)
A. Both BlackBerry Enterprise Server instances can be managed in the same BlackBerry Domain
B. It allows time for testing beforemigrating all BlackBerry device users
C. BlackBerry devices will not require new service books
D. The cost of an additional SRP Identifier is saved
Answer: B

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NO.11 Nextair Corporation. has limited hardware resources available and is planning to perform an in-place
upgrade of BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 to version 5.0. What are two
disadvantages of this approach? (Choose two)
A. All other locations with 4.1.6 BlackBerry Enterprise Servers must be upgraded immediately
B. It will be more difficult to rollback
C. There is additional cost of another SRP
D. The SQL database must be hosted on two separate BlackBerry Enterprise Servers
E. They will experience more downtime
Answer: B,E

BlackBerry examen   BCP-620   BCP-620   BCP-620 examen

NO.12 After completing a successful deployment of BlackBerry devices, the company is adding an additional
51 messaging servers across the four offices, which all support BlackBerry device users. What should
you do to ensure optimal performance while meeting the company businessoffices, which all support
BlackBerry device users. What should you do to ensure optimal performance while meeting the company?
business requirements? (Choose one)
A. Create a BlackBerry Router pool
B. Increase bandwidth to Microsoft SQL Server
C. Add a standby BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance
D. Ensure each messaging server is only being accessed by one BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. Ensure each BlackBerry Enterprise Server is only connecting to one messaging server
Answer: D

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NO.13 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

BlackBerry   BCP-620 examen   BCP-620

NO.14 Nextair Corporation has configured push application access to be above the failover threshold but
below the promotion threshold. Which situation will cause a failover? (Choose one)
A. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service is healthy on the secondary BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance
B. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service is healthy on the primary BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance
C. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service fails on the secondary BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance
D. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service fails on the primary BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance
Answer: D

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NO.15 Given the scenario, what is the proper role to assign the head administrator in the New York office?
(Choose one)
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Security Administrator
C. Monitoring System Administrator
D. Senior Helpdesk Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.16 Nextair Corporation wants to be able to efficiently manage the BlackBerry solution at all times.
How can this be accomplished if a BlackBerry Enterprise Server is installed in two different cities?
(Choose one)
A. Set up one of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server instances as a standby instance
B. Create a pool of BlackBerry Administration Service instances
C. Enable automatic connections failover
D. Setup BlackBerry MDS Integration Service in a round robin configuration
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-620   certification BCP-620

NO.17 With secure messaging, Plazmic Inc. has decided to implement the S/MIME support package.
How can the IT department deploy this for all the BlackBerry device users? (Choose one)
A. Use a software configuration to push it to all BlackBerry device users
B. Use the BlackBerry Desktop Manager to upload the S/MIME support package
C. Use the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager to allow users to install the S/MIME support
package
D. Have the user download it from the S/MIME website on the BlackBerry device
Answer: B

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-620   BCP-620

NO.18 Given the scenario, any new applications developed for the sales application will need to be published
again. Which service should be installed in New York to allow for timely uploads and publishing? (Choose
one)
A. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service
B. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
C. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
D. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
Answer: B

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NO.19 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and
the BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week. Management
would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this mass enterprise
activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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NO.20 Plazmic Inc. future plan is to open an office in Singapore with approximately 500 BlackBerry device
users at a forecasted rate of 30% growth forPlazmic Inc.? future plan is to open an office in Singapore
with approximately 500 BlackBerry device users at a forecasted rate of 30% growth for the next fiscal year.
It has been decided to install a standalone MDS Connection Service instance in the Singapore location to
ease the load off the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and work-around the slower WAN connection. What
are the recommended software and hardware pre-requisites for this installation? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 SP1 or later and minimum of 3 GB of memory
B. Windows XP SP 2 and minimum of 1024 MB of memory
C. Windows XP SP 2 and minimum of 512 MB of memory
D. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 (64-bit) and minimum of 1024 MB of memory
E. Windows Server 2003 R2 and minimum of 3 GB of memory
F. Windows Server 2008 (64-bit) and minimum of 1024 MB of memory
Answer: D,F

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Code d'Examen: BCP-220
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (supporting BlackBerry Devices BlackBerry Interent Service)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 A BlackBerry device user is not able to log in to an online banking site using the BlackBerry Internet
Browsing Service, although other web sites can be successfully accessed. Which of the following might
cause this issue to occur? (Choose one.)
A. The browser content cache is full
B. The web site's security is set too high
C. The BlackBerry device security options are set too high
D. The BlackBerry device Push Content feature is not enabled
E. The BlackBerry device is roaming on a different wireless service provider's mobile network
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BlackBerry device user has three integrated email accounts with the BlackBerry Internet Service:
Yahoo!, Gmail, and an integrated POP email account. Email messages arrive on the BlackBerry device
almost immediately after being received by the Yahoo! and Gmail email accounts. With the integrated
POP email account, it can take up to 15 minutes from the time the email message arrives in the mailbox
until it arrives on the BlackBerry device. What might cause this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Integrated POP email accounts are polled at 15 minute intervals by the BlackBerry Internet Service
B. The user's BlackBerry device is provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Plus Service
C. The Instant Polls feature is disabled for this specific POP email account on the BlackBerry Internet
Service account
D. The BlackBerry device does not have sufficient wireless coverage
E. The user's email messages are being sorted to a .pst folder by the desktop email application
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two limitations of the BlackBerry Desktop Redirector? (Choose two.)
A. 15 minute message polling cycle
B. Requires constant Internet connectivity
C. Provides no attachment support
D. Requires a USB connection
E. Has unencrypted message transmission
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A BlackBerry device user is trying to install BlackBerry Desktop Manager. The installation fails with the
following error message: Error 1904 Which two of the following troubleshooting steps should the user
employ to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Unregister and re-register the atl.dll file
B. Remove any IT policies from the BlackBerry device
C. Install BlackBerry Desktop Manager on a different Windows profile
D. Install a supported version of Microsoft Outlook
E. Update the MAPI subsystem to a compatible version
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 BlackBerry Desktop Manager shows the BlackBerry device as Connected and then quickly shows it as
Disconnected when connecting using Bluetooth. Which of the following would cause this issue to occur?
(Choose one.)
A. An anti-virus program is blocking the Bluetooth connection to BlackBerry Desktop Manager
B. The Bluetooth software has not been installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Improper Bluetooth drivers are installed on the desktop computer
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager has not been installed correctly
E. The Bluetooth hardware that is installed on the computer is unsupported
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-220   BCP-220   BCP-220

NO.6 Email messages deleted from an integrated Yahoo! email account are not being removed from the
BlackBerry device after being deleted from the Yahoo! web site. What are two possible causes for this
issue? (Choose two.)
A. The check box for "Synchronize deleted items between this mailbox and my device" is not checked
B. The Wireless Reconcile option on the BlackBerry device is turned off
C. The Pop Forwarding option on the integrated Yahoo! email account is set to POP access only
D. The email application is configured to "Leave a copy of messages on the server"
E. The On Conflicts option on the BlackBerry device is set to Handheld Wins
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A BlackBerry device user is unable to successfully add a contact to the BlackBerry Messenger list.
The contact is also a BlackBerry device user. The contact is stuck in the Pending state. Which of the
following would cause this problem to occur? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device is not provisioned for BlackBerry Instant Messaging
B. The contact has not accepted the invitation on the BlackBerry device
C. The user is attempting to add the contact by email address, which is unsupported
D. Peer-to-Peer encryption has been set on the BlackBerry device, blocking the contact from being added
E. The user does not have the BlackBerry Internet Browsing Service service book
Answer: B

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NO.8 What information is sent to a BlackBerry device when a BlackBerry device user clicks Send Service
Books from the BlackBerry Internet Service account? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Internet Service service books
B. Email integration service books
C. BlackBerry Internet Service and email integration service books
D. Email integration service books and auto signature service books
E. Provisioning service books
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following might prevent BlackBerry device users from installing Google Maps on their
BlackBerry devices.? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. It is an unsupported application
C. The BlackBerry device is not provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Plus services
D. The users do not have BlackBerry Internet Service accounts
E. A BlackBerry Internet Service policy is blocking the application
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many email accounts can be added to a BlackBerry Internet Service account? (Choose one.)
A. Ten third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
B. Nine third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
C. Up to ten email accounts with any combination of BlackBerry email addresses and third-party email
accounts
D. No limit on third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
E. Up to eleven email accounts with any combination of BlackBerry email addresses and third-party email
accounts
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-220   BCP-220   certification BCP-220

NO.11 A new BlackBerry device user wants to create a BlackBerry Internet Service account but is unable to
locate the Email Settings application on the BlackBerry device. Why is the user unable to locate this
application? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has not been registered on the wireless network yet
B. The BlackBerry device has Email Reconciliation disabled in the Message options
C. The BlackBerry device has been provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Server Plus service
D. The user has selected the incorrect wireless service provider from the login screen
E. The user included invalid characters during the password selection
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-220   BCP-220 examen   certification BCP-220

NO.12 A BlackBerry device user's BlackBerry device stops receiving email messages from an integrated
Yahoo! email account. What are three possible causes for this issue? (Choose three.)
A. There are email messages with attachments over 8MB in the user's Inbox
B. The user changed the password for the Yahoo! email account
C. The user entered the incorrect password on the BlackBerry device, ten times
D. Yahoo!'s anti-spam application is blocking incoming email messages from going to the user's Inbox
E. The service book for the email account has been deleted from the BlackBerry device
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 A BlackBerry device user is having difficulty sending email messages that include attachments from
the BlackBerry device. What should the user do to resolve this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Change the Attachment Compression settings to Low on the BlackBerry device
B. Compress the attachments using the BlackBerry Zip To Go application before sending
C. Use Roxio Media Manager to convert the attachments for Optimal Upload
D. Use Bluetooth to send attachments larger than 2.6MB
E. Ensure the total attachment size does not exceed 5MB
Answer: E

BlackBerry   BCP-220 examen   BCP-220   BCP-220 examen

NO.14 Which final step must be performed by BlackBerry device users after migrating from an Automatic
Login account to a Classic Mode account before they can receive new email messages? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new password for the BlackBerry Internet Service account
B. Send service books to the BlackBerry device
C. Perform a hard reset and re-register the BlackBerry device on the wireless network
D. Accept the End User Licensing Agreement after logging into the BlackBerry Internet Service web site
E. Re-validate any BlackBerry device hosted email addresses and third-party email integrations
Answer: E

BlackBerry examen   BCP-220   BCP-220   BCP-220   BCP-220

NO.15 A BlackBerry device user has a media card in the BlackBerry device, but the BlackBerry device memory
is full. Which three of the following actions should the user take to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an Application Load on the BlackBerry device to install additional memory
B. Make sure the BlackBerry device is set to automatically delete old email messages
C. Enable Content Compression on the BlackBerry device
D. Uninstall third-party applications
E. Move pictures from the BlackBerry device memory to the media card
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.16 Which two pieces of information are required to add a work email address to a BlackBerry Internet
Service account through advanced integration? (Choose two.)
A. The type of email integration
B. The messaging server address
C. The user name and password
D. The number of users on the messaging server
E. The MAC address of the messaging server
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 When are you required to use the advanced integration feature of the BlackBerry Internet Service?
(Choose one.)
A. When integrating a third-party email account that requires a proxy server
B. When integrating a BlackBerry Internet Service account that has a password specified
C. When integrating a Microsoft Outlook Web Access email account that has an Internet Security and
Acceleration Server
D. When integrating a third-party email account that requires a user name not found in the email address
E. When integrating a Yahoo! email account in order to receive instant email message notifications
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-220   BCP-220 examen   BCP-220   BCP-220

NO.18 Email messages deleted from a BlackBerry device are not being removed from the BlackBerry device
user's email application for an integrated IMAP email account. Which of the following might cause this to
happen? (Choose one.)
A. The user's email application was configured to access the messaging server using POP settings
B. Wireless message reconciliation is not supported for integrated IMAP email accounts
C. The user has disabled wireless email reconciliation in the BlackBerry Internet Service account
D. The user has not enabled email reconciliation in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
E. The BlackBerry device is provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Server service on the wireless data
network
Answer: A

certification BlackBerry   BCP-220   certification BCP-220   BCP-220   BCP-220

NO.19 Which two of the following synchronization options for the Calendar Data range can be customized for
BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Choose > Select Task Range
B. Enable Quick Entry
C. Choose to Transfer all past items
D. Select All scheduled items
E. Choose to Transfer only future items
Answer: D,E

BlackBerry   BCP-220 examen   BCP-220   BCP-220 examen

NO.20 What are two purposes of the Reply To field within an integrated email account? (Choose two.)
A. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be used as the reply address for anyone that
receives email messages from this email integration.
B. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be used as the reply address for anyone that
receives forwarded email messages from this email integration.
C. The email address contained in the Reply To field will automatically be added to the CC field of any
replies sent from this email integration.
D. The email address contained in the Reply To field will replace the Sent address on any email
messages received from this email integration.
E. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be added as a Favorite to the Reply field when
replying to email messages sent to this email integration.
Answer: A,D

BlackBerry   BCP-220   BCP-220   BCP-220   BCP-220

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-871
Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part I)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Is the following statement true or false? "Each database corresponds to a single directory under data
directory, regardless of what storage engine table uses in the database"
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

MYSQL   1Z0-871   1Z0-871 examen

NO.2 You want to create two databases, test and Test. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You can create both databases because database names in MySQL are case sensitive.
B. You can create both databases when your operating system supports case sensitive directory names.
C. You can create both databases when you quote delimited the database names like `test` and `Test`.
D. You can create both databases since t and T are different in the ASCII character set.
Answer: B

MYSQL   1Z0-871   1Z0-871 examen   1Z0-871 examen

NO.3 Which of the following are true in relation to character set and collation relationships in MySQL?
A. A collation may belong to only one character set.
B. A collation may belong to many character sets.
C. A character set may have only one collation.
D. A character set may have many collations.
Answer: A,D

MYSQL   1Z0-871   1Z0-871 examen

NO.4 Ignoring any warnings that may be issued, which of the following statements will delete the `world`
database and its entire contents on execution, but return no error if it doesn't exist?
A. DROP DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
B. DROP IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
C. DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
D. DELETE DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
E. DELETE IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
F. DELETE DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements will provide a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'world'?
A. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
B. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
C. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DATABASE WHERE NAME
LIKE 'world%'
D. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.DATABASE WHERE
NAME LIKE 'world%'
Answer: A

MYSQL   1Z0-871 examen   1Z0-871   1Z0-871   1Z0-871

NO.6 Which of the following statements will return a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'pro'?
A. LIST DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
B. SHOW DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
C. SELECT DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
D. LIST DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
E. SHOW DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
F. SELECT DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
Answer: E

MYSQL   1Z0-871   1Z0-871

NO.7 Consider the following:
Which of the quoted values below will be returned for the name field in the SELECT results?
A. ' Tom'
B. ' Tom '
C. 'Tom'
D. 'Tom '
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true? Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
A. Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
B. Database have a default character set and a default collation.
C. When creating a table within a database without specifying a character set and a collation, the default
character set and collation from the database are being used.
D. If a default character set and collation are defined for a database, settings for tables defined in that
database will be ignored.
Answer: C,D

certification MYSQL   1Z0-871   1Z0-871   certification 1Z0-871

NO.9 In non-strict mode, assuming that the table city does not already exist and you execute the following
sequence of commands: CREATE TABLE city (city_name CHAR(5)) INSERT INTO city (city_name)
VALUES ('NEW YORK'), ('TOKYO'), (23+345), ('LONDON') -- Ignoring any errors or warnings that may be
issued, which values are now in the table?
A. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '23+345', 'LONDON'
B. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '23+34', 'LONDO'
C. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', ' ', 'LONDON'
D. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDO'
E. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDON'
Answer: D

MYSQL   1Z0-871   1Z0-871   1Z0-871 examen

NO.10 Which of the following are a valid identifier for the user table in the mysql database.?
A. mysql.user
B. `mysql.user`
C. `mysql`.`user`
D. mysql.`user`
Answer: A,C,D

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Les meilleures SAP C-TB1200-07 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C-TB1200-07
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007)
Questions et réponses: 152 Q&As

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NO.1 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A. Stock entry.
B. Stock release.
C. Completion of a production order.
D. Purchase order submission.
Answer: A,B,C,D

certification SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen

NO.2 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A. Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B. Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C. Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D. Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.3 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A. When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B. From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C. Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D. You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.4 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries.
What would you recommend?
A. Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and
Deliveries as the base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B. Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C. Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and
Delivery as the target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D. Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.5 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A. No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B. No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C. Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the
repetitive area of the linked template.
D. Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen

NO.6 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A. Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B. Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C. Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D. Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer: A

certification SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07

NO.7 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A. Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B. To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C. The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D. Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E. A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunitesfor any of his direct reports.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

SAP examen   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07

NO.8 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for
example). How can I create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to
change the date in the "Where" condition area?
A. Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B. Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C. Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL
'[%0]' then save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the
desired date.
D. Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL
'[%3]' then save the query.
Answer: A

certification SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07

NO.9 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A. Conditions
B. Table entries
C. Field entries
D. Grouping
E. Sorting
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

SAP   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07

NO.10 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A. You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B. You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C. Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D. Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E. You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

SAP examen   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen   C-TB1200-07

NO.11 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A. With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B. With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C. With standard costvaluation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D. With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E. With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

SAP   certification C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07

NO.12 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A. Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B. Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C. Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D. Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer: A

SAP examen   certification C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen   certification C-TB1200-07

NO.13 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A. Payroll processing
B. Shift planning
C. Employee master data
D. Recording and evaluation of absences
E. Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

certification SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen

NO.14 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A. 1) Special prices for the customer
2) Discount groups linked to the business partner
3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner
4) The price list specified in the business partner master data
B. 1) Discount groups
2) Special prices for the customer
3) Period and volume discounts for the price list linked to the business partner
4) The default price list for the customer
C. 1)The default price list for the document
2) Discount groups tied to the document
3) Special prices for the customer
D. 1) Customer special prices
2) Discount groups
3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list linked to the document
4) Price list defined for the document
Answer: A

certification SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07 examen

NO.15 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A. The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B. The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C. The value in the 'Required (PurchasingUoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D. The value in the 'QuantityPer Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.16 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A. Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B. Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C. Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D. In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium
of 40%.
Answer: C

SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.17 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A. When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B. When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System
information, the table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C. Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D. Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer: B

SAP examen   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   certification C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.18 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A. Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document
type, then select a quotation from another business partner.
B. Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'.
You can now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C. You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D. You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.19 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A. In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level.
Wheneveremployees post a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an
email message to the purchasing manager.
B. In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C. Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D. In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release StockBelow the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer: C

SAP   C-TB1200-07 examen   certification C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

NO.20 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings:
[%1], [%2], and [%3].
What is the function of these strings in a query?
A. The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-TB1200-07   C-TB1200-07

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